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FAA Airline Transport Pilot (ATM) practice questions

300 free questions with answers and explanations.

Practice test
  1. 1.A dispatcher is reviewing thunderstorm activity and must determine whether a Convective SIGMET should be issued. Which of the following meets the criteria for issuance of a Convective SIGMET?Meteorology and Weather Services
  2. 2.A commercial pilot applying for an Airline Transport Pilot certificate with an airplane multiengine class rating (not using a restricted-privileges pathway) must show a minimum amount of total flight time under 14 CFR 61.159. What is that minimum?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  3. 3.An airplane's clean, wings-level stall speed is 120 knots. During an instrument approach, the pilot enters a steady 60-degree bank turn while maintaining altitude. What is the approximate stall speed in this turn?Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance
  4. 4.A crew is planning an RNAV (GPS) approach to an airport with no other approach available due to weather, using a non-WAAS GPS receiver. Before departure, dispatch reviews the RAIM prediction and finds that RAIM will be unavailable for 10 minutes surrounding the estimated arrival time at the destination. What is the appropriate course of action?Navigation, Air Traffic Control and Procedures
  5. 5.An aircraft weighs 120,000 lb with the CG located at fuselage station 500.0. The loadmaster moves 1,000 lb of cargo from station 300 to station 700. What is the new CG location?Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance
  6. 6.A regional airline is preparing to hire a first officer applicant. Under 14 CFR 61.16, what must the airline do before allowing the applicant to begin service as a pilot?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  7. 7.Performance charts for a planned departure show the following maximum allowable takeoff weights: field length limit 165,000 lb; climb limit 158,000 lb; obstacle clearance limit 162,000 lb; structural maximum takeoff weight 170,000 lb. What is the maximum allowable takeoff weight for this departure?Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance
  8. 8.A pilot flying an all-night transatlantic freight route finds that her alertness and decision-making are at their worst between 0300 and 0500 body clock time, regardless of how much sleep she got beforehand. This period of predictable performance decline is known as:Human Factors and CRM
  9. 9.A flight instructor explains that hail forms inside a mature thunderstorm through a specific process. Which statement best describes how large hailstones develop?Meteorology and Weather Services
  10. 10.A turbojet-powered transport produces 24,000 lb of static thrust per engine at sea level. As the aircraft climbs to FL350, where air density is roughly 30% of sea-level density, thrust available decreases substantially even though the engine RPM/N1 is maintained. What is the primary reason for this thrust reduction with altitude?Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  11. 11.During cruise at FL390, a transport aircraft experiences a rapid (explosive) decompression due to a structural failure. What is the most urgent physiological hazard requiring the crew to don oxygen masks without delay?Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  12. 12.A pilot receives a PIREP indicating an outside air temperature of -4°C at 8,000 feet MSL. Using the standard lapse rate, what is the approximate freezing level?Meteorology and Weather Services
  13. 13.A first officer attends a wedding reception and stops drinking alcohol at 11:00 p.m. She is scheduled to report for duty at 6:00 a.m. the next morning, feeling clear-headed and well-rested. Under 14 CFR 91.17, is she legal to serve as a required crewmember?Human Factors and CRM
  14. 14.An aircraft flying through a layer of stratiform clouds at -12°C composed of small supercooled water droplets accumulates a rough, milky-white, opaque ice deposit on the leading edges of the wings. This description is characteristic of which type of icing?Meteorology and Weather Services
  15. 15.A Part 121 airline captain completed a satisfactory PIC proficiency check under 14 CFR 61.58 eight months ago as part of the company's approved training program. Under 14 CFR 61.56, what effect does this have on the captain's flight review requirement?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  16. 16.A dispatcher is preparing the release for a Part 121 domestic scheduled flight requiring an alternate airport. Under 14 CFR 121.639, in addition to fuel to fly to the destination and then to the alternate, what additional fuel reserve must be included?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  17. 17.A heavy transport rotates near its balanced field length limit and lifts off while still within one wingspan of the runway surface. The pilot notices the airplane accelerates and climbs sluggishly as it climbs out of this region. Which characteristic of flight within ground effect explains why the airplane may have become airborne before reaching its normal climb speed?Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance
  18. 18.A PIREP reports the following temperature profile during a descent: -6°C at 8,000 feet, +4°C at 5,000 feet, and -2°C at the surface. Precipitation is falling as rain that freezes immediately on contact with the aircraft and with ground structures. This temperature profile and precipitation type are classic indicators ofMeteorology and Weather Services
  19. 19.A pilot conducting a VOR operational check under 14 CFR 91.171 cross-checks two independent VOR receivers against each other in flight because no VOT or designated ground checkpoint is available. What is the maximum allowable difference between the two indicated bearings for the check to be satisfactory?Navigation, Air Traffic Control and Procedures
  20. 20.A stationary front has remained nearly motionless over an airport for the past 24 hours. As long as the front stays in this position, what weather condition is most likely to persist?Meteorology and Weather Services
  21. 21.A commercial pilot with 1,500 hours of total flight time plans to take the FAA ATP (airplane) knowledge test to pursue a multiengine class rating. Under 14 CFR 61.156, what must the pilot complete before taking that knowledge test?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  22. 22.ATC issues a clearance with a void time of 1015. The pilot is unable to depart by that time. By what time must the pilot notify ATC of their intentions?Navigation, Air Traffic Control and Procedures
  23. 23.A pilot files a PIREP stating that occasional use of the deicing boots removes ice accumulation, but the encounter could become a problem if the flight in icing conditions were extended beyond one hour. Which icing intensity should be reported?Meteorology and Weather Services
  24. 24.A Part 121 dispatcher is planning a flight duty period that includes a scheduled split duty rest period to extend the maximum FDP under 14 CFR 117.15. What is the minimum length of the scheduled rest period, provided in a suitable accommodation, required to qualify for a split duty extension?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  25. 25.A dispatcher is computing the maximum allowable landing weight for a turbojet transport at the destination airport under 14 CFR Part 121. The effective runway length is 9,000 feet. Per the destination airport landing distance rule, what is the maximum landing distance the airplane's performance data may show for dispatch?Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance
  26. 26.A Boeing 737 (large category) is being sequenced for approach behind an Airbus A380 (super category) on the same runway. What minimum radar separation must ATC apply between the two aircraft?Navigation, Air Traffic Control and Procedures
  27. 27.A Part 121 operator's maintenance team is verifying flight data recorder (FDR) compliance under 14 CFR 121.343. What is the minimum number of hours of flight data the FDR must be capable of retaining?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  28. 28.A first officer had two glasses of wine at dinner the night before an early-morning report time. Under 14 CFR 91.17, what is the minimum interval that must pass between consuming alcohol and acting as a required crewmember?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  29. 29.During cruise flight, a Part 121 captain encounters a sudden in-flight emergency requiring immediate deviation from an ATC clearance and an assigned altitude restriction. Under 14 CFR 91.3, what authority does the captain have, and what is required afterward?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  30. 30.A first officer believes the captain's planned approach speed is too fast for the gusty crosswind conditions. Rather than staying silent or simply complying, the first officer states clearly, 'Captain, I'm concerned Vref plus 15 may be too fast given the gusts—I recommend we add only 10 knots,' and continues to press the point until it is addressed. This behavior best demonstrates:Human Factors and CRM
  31. 31.A winds and temperatures aloft forecast (FD) for FL390 contains the coded group '731352'. Given that above 24,000 feet, 50 has been added to the coded direction and 100 subtracted from the coded speed whenever wind speeds are forecast between 100 and 199 knots, what are the decoded wind direction, speed, and temperature?Meteorology and Weather Services
  32. 32.An older-generation swept-wing transport is equipped with wing fences—thin, chordwise vertical plates mounted on the upper wing surface. What is their primary aerodynamic purpose?Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  33. 33.A transport aircraft in cruise inadvertently exceeds Vmo/Mmo, triggering the overspeed warning ('clacker'), requiring the crew to reduce speed immediately. What primary structural/aerodynamic hazard does the Vmo/Mmo limit protect against, distinct from stall or low-speed buffet concerns?Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  34. 34.Per 14 CFR Part 25 certification standards, the net takeoff flight path (gross flight path reduced by the required gradient decrements) must clear all obstacles within the obstacle accountability area by what minimum margin?Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance
  35. 35.A junior first officer notices the captain is configuring the aircraft for an approach that appears unstable but hesitates to speak up due to the captain's seniority and experience. This scenario best illustrates a breakdown related to:Human Factors and CRM
  36. 36.A dispatcher reviewing radar data notes that a thunderstorm cell now shows predominantly weakening downdrafts, diminishing rainfall intensity, and a cloud top that has flattened into a spreading anvil shape. Which stage of the thunderstorm life cycle is this cell in?Meteorology and Weather Services
  37. 37.During cruise, a pilot momentarily releases the flight controls while the aircraft is in a shallow bank. Over the next minute, without any pilot input, the bank angle and turn rate slowly and continuously increase. This tendency indicates the aircraft has:Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  38. 38.A pilot flying an overnight cargo flight has been awake since 6:00 a.m. and is now attempting to land at 4:00 a.m. after 22 hours of continuous wakefulness. The primary human factors concern in this scenario is that performance degradation from this level of fatigue is comparable to a blood alcohol concentration of approximately:Human Factors and CRM
  39. 39.A transport aircraft has a wings-level 1g stall speed of 120 KIAS. During a steady 45° banked turn, what is the approximate new stall speed?Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  40. 40.An aircraft has an empty weight of 92,000 lb at CG station 610.0. Fuel of 20,000 lb is loaded at station 650.0, and cargo of 8,000 lb is loaded at station 700.0. What is the resulting aircraft CG station?Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance
  41. 41.A flight instructor is conducting a flight review under 14 CFR 61.56 for a pilot who does not qualify for any of the recency exceptions. What is the minimum ground and flight training that must be included in the review?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  42. 42.While flying in IMC during a prolonged, steady turn, a pilot briefly tilts her head down to check a chart on her kneeboard. Immediately afterward, she experiences a sudden, intense sensation of tumbling or rotating about a completely different axis than the actual turn. This illusion is known as:Human Factors and CRM
  43. 43.A transport aircraft has a Vmo of 340 KIAS and an Mmo of 0.82. During a climb at a constant 340 KIAS, at approximately what point does the applicable maximum operating limit speed change from being defined by Vmo to being defined by Mmo?Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  44. 44.An air traffic controller issues a clearance using unfamiliar local phraseology not found in the Pilot/Controller Glossary, causing the flight crew to misinterpret the instruction and read back an incorrect altitude. This event is best classified as a failure due to:Human Factors and CRM
  45. 45.A dispatcher notes that the departure airport's density altitude is significantly higher than the field elevation due to high temperature. What is the primary performance effect on the jet's takeoff?Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance
  46. 46.A transport-category airplane in cruise flight encounters a gust that produces a momentary sideslip to the right. As a result, the right (windward) wing develops a higher angle of attack and more lift than the left wing, producing a rolling moment that returns the wings to level without pilot input. This self-correcting tendency is primarily the result of which design feature?Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  47. 47.An airliner experiences two-way radio communications failure while operating IFR in IMC, prior to reaching the last assigned altitude. ATC's last transmission assigned a climb to FL350, but the MEA for the current route segment is FL310, and no altitude was included in the route clearance as 'expect.' What altitude should the pilot maintain?Navigation, Air Traffic Control and Procedures
  48. 48.An airline's Part 121 training program is developing a type rating course for the Airbus A320 using a Level D full flight simulator. Under 14 CFR 61.31 and applicable training program provisions, which statement is correct regarding completion of the type rating practical test?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  49. 49.Per 14 CFR Part 25 certification standards, after the airplane has completed flap retraction and reached a clean configuration with the critical engine inoperative, the airplane enters the final segment of the takeoff flight path and continues climbing to at least 1,500 feet AGL. For a two-engine airplane, what is the minimum required climb gradient during this final segment?Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance
  50. 50.At a high-elevation airport with a long, obstacle-free runway, a dispatcher finds that the maximum allowable takeoff weight is restricted to less than the field-length-limited weight, even though climb and obstacle limits are not restrictive. Which factor is most likely responsible for this additional restriction?Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance