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FAA Airline Transport Pilot (ATM) practice questions

300 free questions with answers and explanations.

Practice test
  1. 151.An airline retrofits its transport fleet with winglets. What is the primary aerodynamic benefit?Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  2. 152.A flight crew calculates they will land with fuel above the required minimum reserve, but with less margin than desired for any further delay. According to AIM guidance, what should the pilot communicate to ATC?Navigation, Air Traffic Control and Procedures
  3. 153.A pilot studying atmospheric properties recalls that the International Standard Atmosphere defines an average rate at which temperature decreases with altitude throughout the troposphere. What is this standard (average) lapse rate?Meteorology and Weather Services
  4. 154.An airport publishes a runway with 500 feet of stopway beyond the far end of the paved runway surface, but no clearway. Which of the following takeoff performance distances is increased by the presence of this stopway?Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance
  5. 155.Under 14 CFR 61.31, a type rating is required to act as pilot in command of which of the following aircraft?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  6. 156.During cruise at high altitude, a transport aircraft's yaw damper automatically deflects the rudder in small, rapid corrections in response to sensed yaw rate, without any pilot rudder input. What is the primary purpose of this automatic function?Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  7. 157.A pilot copies a METAR reporting sky condition as 'BKN008 OVC015'. According to FAA definitions, what is the reported ceiling at this station?Meteorology and Weather Services
  8. 158.Two wings have the same planform area and airfoil section, but Wing A has a long span with a narrow chord (high aspect ratio) while Wing B has a short span with a wide chord (low aspect ratio). At the same lift coefficient, which wing produces less induced drag, and why?Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  9. 159.An airline's weight and balance system uses an index system referenced to a fixed datum, where the current index number is 40.0. A loadmaster adds 2,000 lb of cargo to a compartment where the loading chart shows an index contribution of 15.0 index units per 1,000 lb loaded at that station. What is the new total index number after this cargo is loaded?Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance
  10. 160.An aircraft without DME is holding at 16,000 feet MSL in a published holding pattern with no charted leg length. What should the outbound leg timing be?Navigation, Air Traffic Control and Procedures
  11. 161.A flight crew is planning a flight through RVSM airspace between FL290 and FL410. To receive RVSM operational approval, the airplane's altimetry system must maintain altimetry system error (ASE) within:Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  12. 162.An airline crew is using the DECIDE model to resolve an in-flight decision about a hydraulic system caution light. After detecting the problem and estimating its significance, the next step in the model requires the crew to:Human Factors and CRM
  13. 163.A VOR federal airway (Victor airway) is protected for 4 nautical miles on each side of the centerline near the defining VOR stations. Based on the standard 4.5-degree divergence angle used to define the airway boundaries, at what distance from the VOR does the protected width begin to expand beyond 4 NM on each side?Navigation, Air Traffic Control and Procedures
  14. 164.Under 14 CFR Part 117, when does a flightcrew member's flight duty period (FDP) begin?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  15. 165.A pilot on approach to a runway surrounded closely by hangars and trees experiences bumpy, irregular turbulence in the final 200 feet AGL. The atmosphere is stable with no convective activity present, but surface winds are gusty and moderate. This turbulence is most likely caused byMeteorology and Weather Services
  16. 166.A pilot operating under IFR requests a contact approach to an airport that has a published standard instrument approach procedure. Which condition must be satisfied for ATC to approve this request?Navigation, Air Traffic Control and Procedures
  17. 167.A widebody jet is normally classified as Category D for circling approach purposes based on its maximum certificated landing weight, but on a particular flight it is landing very light and the pilot chooses to fly the approach at a slower airspeed. For circling minimums on this approach, which category should the pilot use?Navigation, Air Traffic Control and Procedures
  18. 168.During an engine fire emergency, a captain quickly delegates radio communication to the first officer, assigns the relief pilot to run the checklist, and personally focuses on flying the aircraft. This is an example of:Human Factors and CRM
  19. 169.A dispatcher receives a SIGMET advising of a volcanic ash cloud along the planned route at FL350. What is the recommended course of action for the flight?Meteorology and Weather Services
  20. 170.A transport-category jet's fuselage cross-section is deliberately 'waisted' (narrowed) near the wing root compared to fore and aft sections. What aerodynamic principle explains this design feature?Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  21. 171.An RNAV (GPS) approach publishes LPV, LNAV/VNAV, and LNAV minimums. During the approach, the aircraft's WAAS-based vertical guidance becomes unavailable, but GPS lateral RNP performance remains valid. Which minimums must the crew now use?Navigation, Air Traffic Control and Procedures
  22. 172.A transport-category airplane with conventional (non-fly-by-wire) flight controls is flying near Vmo at low altitude. A pilot applies aileron input to initiate a roll, but at this very high dynamic pressure, the wing structure twists slightly under aerodynamic load, causing the ailerons to become less effective or even reverse their intended effect. What phenomenon does this describe?Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  23. 173.A turbojet is cruising at a constant Mach 0.80 and climbs into a layer of air that is colder than the temperature it was flying in previously, with Mach number held constant. How does the airplane's true airspeed (TAS) change?Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance
  24. 174.A takeoff performance chart requires a 5% increase in required takeoff distance for each 1% of runway upslope. The unfactored (zero-slope) takeoff distance required is 6,500 feet, and the departure runway has a 2% upslope. What is the corrected takeoff distance required?Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance
  25. 175.A twin-engine airliner is dispatched on an ETOPS 180-minute route over water. The approved one-engine-inoperative diversion cruise speed is 320 knots. What is the maximum distance the flight's route may take it from an adequate enroute alternate airport?Navigation, Air Traffic Control and Procedures
  26. 176.Per 14 CFR Part 25 certification standards, what is the minimum required second-segment climb gradient for a two-engine transport category airplane with the landing gear retracted, takeoff flaps set, and one engine inoperative?Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance
  27. 177.A flight instructor explains to a new captain that pilot performance is not simply 'more stress equals worse performance.' Instead, performance actually improves as stress/arousal rises from very low levels, peaks at a moderate level, and then declines sharply as stress becomes excessive. This relationship is best described by:Human Factors and CRM
  28. 178.A flight planner examining a 500-millibar constant pressure chart for an upcoming transcontinental flight is primarily using it to determine which of the following?Meteorology and Weather Services
  29. 179.During a takeoff performance briefing, a first officer asks the captain to define V2. Which statement best describes V2?Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance
  30. 180.A pilot holding an Airline Transport Pilot certificate is scheduled to serve as pilot in command on a Part 121 scheduled passenger flight. What class of medical certificate must the pilot currently hold to exercise PIC privileges?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  31. 181.A twin-engine transport jet experiences a flameout of the right engine while cruising at FL410. The crew is unable to achieve an air start at that altitude. According to standard procedures, why must the crew typically descend to a lower altitude before a windmill air start will be successful?Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  32. 182.A pilot extends the wing leading-edge slats prior to landing. What is the primary aerodynamic benefit of this high-lift device?Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  33. 183.A swept-wing transport is accelerating through Mach 0.80 in cruise. As Mach number increases further, the aerodynamic center shifts aft, producing a nose-down pitching tendency (Mach tuck). To counteract this and preserve positive longitudinal speed stability at high Mach, the airplane's automatic system commands:Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  34. 184.A flight instructor explains that three basic ingredients must be present simultaneously for a thunderstorm to develop. Which combination correctly identifies these ingredients?Meteorology and Weather Services
  35. 185.During a slow-speed, high-angle-of-attack maneuver in a swept-wing transport, the wingtips begin to stall before the wing root due to spanwise airflow. What undesirable pitching characteristic does this tip-stall pattern tend to produce?Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  36. 186.On a cold, clear autumn morning with calm winds, a pilot performing a preflight walk-around near a lake observes thin wisps of fog rising directly off the surface of the water shortly after a cold air mass moved over the relatively warm lake. Which type of fog is the pilot observing?Meteorology and Weather Services
  37. 187.An aircraft is flying directly over a VOR/DME station at 6,000 feet MSL, and the station's elevation is at sea level. Approximately what slant-range distance will the DME display at that moment?Navigation, Air Traffic Control and Procedures
  38. 188.A Part 121 turbojet flight is planned to land at a destination airport with 8,000 feet of usable runway, standard temperature and no wind. Under 14 CFR 121.195(b), what is the maximum landing distance the dispatcher may plan for at the planned landing weight?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  39. 189.Under 14 CFR Part 117, what is the maximum total flight time a flightcrew member may accumulate in any 365 consecutive calendar days?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  40. 190.During postflight review of an incident, investigators request the cockpit voice recorder (CVR) recording. Under 14 CFR 121.359, what is the minimum duration of recorded information that a CVR installed on a Part 121 aircraft must be capable of retaining?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  41. 191.A dispatcher is completing a weight and balance manifest for a domestic flight in February and does not have actual passenger weights available. IAW FAA Advisory Circular 120-27, Aircraft Weight and Balance Control, what standard average adult passenger weight (no checked baggage) should be used for this winter-period flight?Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance
  42. 192.An airway segment has a published MEA of 6,000 feet and a published MOCA of 4,000 feet. The pilot wants to descend to the lowest altitude that guarantees both obstacle clearance and reliable navigation signal reception for the entire length of the segment. Which altitude should the pilot use?Navigation, Air Traffic Control and Procedures
  43. 193.A flight crew departs from a high-elevation airport on a hot day. Compared to a sea-level standard day departure, which statement correctly describes the effect on takeoff performance?Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  44. 194.A Part 121 flightcrew member is assigned to short-call reserve under 14 CFR Part 117. What is the maximum length of the Reserve Availability Period (RAP) that the certificate holder may assign?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  45. 195.A flight planner reviewing weather advisories notes an AIRMET Tango has been issued for the route of flight. What hazard does this advisory specifically address?Meteorology and Weather Services
  46. 196.A flightcrew member is scheduled to report for an early-morning flight duty period but, two hours before report time, experiences significant fatigue due to a personal emergency the previous night. Under 14 CFR 117.5, what is the flightcrew member required to do?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  47. 197.A Part 121 operator wants to implement a data-driven fatigue management approach that would allow flight duty periods exceeding the prescriptive limits in 14 CFR Part 117 Subparts B through D for certain routes. What must the operator do under 14 CFR 117.19?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  48. 198.For a Part 121 flag (international) operation under 14 CFR 121.645, when an alternate airport is required, fuel must be carried to fly to the destination, then to the most distant alternate specified, and then for how long at normal cruising fuel consumption?Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
  49. 199.An aircraft's rate of climb decreases linearly with altitude above FL350 at a rate of 50 fpm per 1,000 feet. At FL350, the rate of climb is 300 fpm. Using the standard definition of service ceiling (rate of climb = 100 fpm), what is the approximate service ceiling for this aircraft?Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
  50. 200.Using the takeoff trim setting chart, a dispatcher calculates the CG for Flight 220 at 18% MAC (near the forward limit) and for Flight 221 at 30% MAC. Both flights use the same flap setting and takeoff weight range on the chart. How should the required horizontal stabilizer trim setting for Flight 220 compare to that of Flight 221?Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance