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FAA Instrument Flight Instructor (FII) practice questions

220 free questions with answers and explanations.

Practice test
  1. 51.A newly certificated flight instructor wants to provide instrument training in airplanes to satisfy the requirements of 61.65(d) for an instrument rating applicant. According to 14 CFR 61.195(c), what minimum flight experience must this instructor have logged?Instrument Regulations
  2. 52.A pilot planning a high-altitude flight near a strong jet stream asks a CFII where clear air turbulence (CAT) is most likely to be encountered relative to the jet core. Which location is correct?Weather
  3. 53.A pilot is planning a departure from an airport at a pressure altitude of 5,000 feet with an outside air temperature of 30°C. Using the standard lapse rate assumption, what is the approximate density altitude, and what performance concern should this raise for the CFII to brief?Weather
  4. 54.An aircraft is flying at 8,000 feet MSL under standard atmospheric conditions with a calibrated airspeed of 150 knots. Using the general rule of thumb that true airspeed increases approximately 2% above calibrated airspeed for every 1,000 feet of altitude, the approximate true airspeed isInstruments and Systems
  5. 55.During a cross-country flight, a pilot reports towering cumulus clouds, a bumpy ride, and unlimited visibility except in isolated rain showers. This report is most indicative of which air mass characteristic?Weather
  6. 56.A pilot is planning an early-morning departure. The previous evening had clear skies, light winds, and high relative humidity. Which type of fog most likely formed overnight at the departure airport?Weather
  7. 57.A flight service specialist advises a pilot of an in-flight weather advisory covering a line of embedded thunderstorms producing surface hail 1 inch in diameter over a wide area. Which weather advisory has been issued?Weather
  8. 58.During a climb through 6,000 feet, an aircraft's static port suddenly becomes obstructed by ice and the alternate static source is not selected. As the aircraft continues to climb above 6,000 feet, the airspeed indicator willInstruments and Systems
  9. 59.A winds and temperatures aloft forecast (FD) for a station shows: 9,000 ft — 2721+03; 12,000 ft — 2734−04. Based on a linear interpolation between these two levels, approximately where should the pilot expect the freezing level?Weather
  10. 60.A CFII is helping a client file an IFR flight plan using the standard flight plan form. Which of the following items is NOT required to be included on the flight plan?Instrument Regulations
  11. 61.An IFR flight loses two-way radio communications while in IMC. The last ATC-assigned altitude was 6,000 feet, the MEA for the current route segment is 7,000 feet, and ATC had previously advised the pilot to expect a climb to 8,000 feet at a fix still ahead. Per 14 CFR 91.185(c)(2), what altitude should the pilot fly?Instrument Regulations
  12. 62.A CFII is briefing a client on VOR receiver accuracy checks required by 91.171 before IFR flight. The client plans to use a VOT (VOR Test) signal to check the receiver. What is the maximum permissible error for this type of check?Instrument Regulations
  13. 63.During a ground lesson on holding patterns, a CFII wants to design questions that push the student beyond simple recall and force genuine analysis of entry procedures. Which characteristic of an effective instructional question should the instructor prioritize to achieve this goal?Instructional Techniques
  14. 64.A pilot flying an IFR flight requests a contact approach instead of the published instrument approach to save time. Under 14 CFR 91.175(l), which condition must be satisfied before ATC may authorize this approach?Instrument Regulations
  15. 65.On a nonprecision approach, the FAF crossing altitude is 2,400 feet MSL and the MDA is 780 feet MSL. The distance from the FAF to the missed approach point is 4.4 NM, and the aircraft's groundspeed on final is 100 knots. What is the approximate required rate of descent to reach the MDA at the MAP?IFR Procedures and Approaches
  16. 66.A pilot flying an RNAV (GPS) approach notices the equipment displays 'LNAV/VNAV' active but the LPV line of minimums is not being flown despite WAAS coverage in the area. What is the most likely explanation?IFR Procedures and Approaches
  17. 67.A pilot's aircraft is equipped with an encoding altimeter that feeds Mode C data to the transponder. Which statement correctly describes what this equipment transmits to ATC?Instruments and Systems
  18. 68.A CFII is briefing a student on the thunderstorm life cycle. During which stage is the storm characterized by continuous updrafts throughout the cell, with no precipitation yet reaching the surface?Weather
  19. 69.A pilot is holding at a fix with published instructions for a standard (right-turn) holding pattern. The aircraft approaches the fix from a direction that places it in the sector on the non-holding side, requiring the pilot to fly to the fix, turn to parallel the outbound course, and then turn back to intercept the inbound course. Which holding entry procedure is this?Instrument Regulations
  20. 70.A CFII conducts an instrument proficiency check (IPC) for a client that includes a full review of the maneuvers and tasks required by 61.56(a) for a flight review, and the client performs satisfactorily. According to 14 CFR 61.56(d), what is the effect of this combined event?Instrument Regulations
  21. 71.An unpressurized aircraft experiences a blocked static port in cruise flight. The pilot selects the alternate static source, which vents to the unpressurized cabin. Assuming the cabin vents/heater are off, what effect will this most likely have on the altimeter reading compared to the actual altitude?Instruments and Systems
  22. 72.An aircraft is inbound on a feeder route at 5,000 feet MSL toward an IAF. The feeder route's published minimum altitude is 4,000 feet, and the intermediate segment after the IAF has a published minimum of 3,000 feet. ATC transmits, 'Cleared for the approach,' with no further altitude restriction. What is the lowest altitude to which the pilot may descend while still on the feeder route?Instrument Regulations
  23. 73.While flying an ILS approach with a CFII, an instrument student begins to make an unsafe control input due to spatial disorientation. According to standard positive exchange of flight controls procedure, what is the FIRST action the instructor should take?Instructional Techniques
  24. 74.A pilot filing an IFR flight plan lists an alternate airport that has both a precision and a nonprecision approach procedure published, with no special alternate minimums listed on the approach charts. Under 14 CFR 91.169(c)(1), what weather minimums must be forecast for the alternate at the estimated time of arrival?Instrument Regulations
  25. 75.A CFII designs a lesson to build a student's confidence and reduce anxiety about flying in actual instrument conditions, in addition to teaching scan technique and procedures. Which domain of learning is primarily being addressed by focusing on the student's attitudes and emotional comfort with IMC flight?Instructional Techniques
  26. 76.A CFII designs a training flight in which the student must decide how to respond to a sudden weather deterioration, an ATC reroute, and a partial panel failure, all woven into a realistic cross-country scenario rather than practicing each skill in isolation. This training approach is best described as:Instructional Techniques
  27. 77.A CFII gives feedback to a student by saying, 'Your scan is good overall, but you consistently let the altimeter drift 150 feet low during turns; work on cross-checking pitch during bank changes.' Which characteristic of effective constructive criticism does this feedback BEST demonstrate?Instructional Techniques
  28. 78.An instrument student can now fly a full ILS approach while simultaneously briefing the missed approach, talking to ATC, and adjusting for gusty winds—all without conscious effort on basic aircraft control. According to the stages of motor skill acquisition, this student is now in which stage?Instructional Techniques
  29. 79.A CFII observes that an instrument student can correctly recite the steps of a missed approach procedure but becomes confused about when to apply them when unexpected weather changes occur during a simulated approach. According to the levels of learning, at which level is this student currently performing?Instructional Techniques
  30. 80.On a nonprecision approach chart, the FAF crossing altitude is 2,000 feet MSL, a step-down fix altitude is charted as 1,400 feet MSL, and the MDA is 900 feet MSL. After crossing the step-down fix at or above 1,400 feet, to what altitude may the pilot descend prior to the missed approach point?IFR Procedures and Approaches
  31. 81.A nonprecision approach chart depicts a Visual Descent Point (VDP) 1.4 NM from the runway threshold. The pilot reaches the VDP but does not have the runway environment in sight. What action should the pilot take?IFR Procedures and Approaches
  32. 82.An air traffic controller receives a PIREP stating, 'Occupants are thrown violently against their seat belts, and loose objects in the cabin are tossed about.' Which turbulence intensity should be recorded based on this report?Weather
  33. 83.A CFII briefs a student that a line of intense, nonfrontal thunderstorms has developed 50-100 miles ahead of a fast-moving cold front. This line often produces the most severe turbulence, hail, and tornadoes of the entire frontal system. What is this feature called?Weather
  34. 84.An airport has a published Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) but no Standard Instrument Departure (SID). A pilot departs IFR in IMC without requesting or briefing the ODP, and ATC issues only a heading and altitude after takeoff. What is true regarding the pilot's obligation to fly the ODP?Instrument Regulations
  35. 85.An aircraft is flying at a constant indicated altitude using the current altimeter setting while crossing from a warm air mass into a significantly colder-than-standard air mass, without any temperature correction applied. What primary hazard should the pilot recognize?Weather
  36. 86.A student pilot asks their CFII to explain the key functional difference between a turn coordinator and a turn-and-slip indicator. The correct explanation is that the turn coordinatorInstruments and Systems
  37. 87.A CFII is teaching gyroscopic principles and asks a student what property allows a gyroscope to maintain its plane of rotation in space, unaffected by movement of its mounting base, until acted upon by an outside force?Instruments and Systems
  38. 88.During an IFR flight in IMC, a pilot's VOR receiver fails and can no longer be used for navigation. According to 14 CFR 91.187, what must the pilot report to ATC?Instrument Regulations
  39. 89.A pilot's aircraft has a maximum certificated landing weight approach speed (1.3 Vso) of 132 knots. When flying a circling approach, which approach category minimums should the pilot use?IFR Procedures and Approaches
  40. 90.An instrument student is flying an ILS approach in actual IMC. Upon arriving at the decision altitude (DA) published for the approach, the required visual references are not in sight. At what point must the pilot initiate the missed approach?IFR Procedures and Approaches
  41. 91.During a winter morning, very cold arctic air moves across a relatively warm, unfrozen lake. A CFII observes wisps of fog rising directly off the water surface. What type of fog is this, and how does it form?Weather
  42. 92.An IFR flight is not in radar contact and is approaching a compulsory reporting point. Per 14 CFR 91.183 and AIM guidance, which items must be included in the position report to ATC?Instrument Regulations
  43. 93.A pilot filing IFR to an airport with only a nonprecision approach lists it as the alternate airport. The forecast weather for the estimated time of arrival at the alternate is a ceiling of 900 feet and visibility of 2 statute miles. Under 14 CFR 91.169(c), does this weather meet the alternate airport minimums?Instrument Regulations
  44. 94.A METAR remarks section includes 'PK WND 28045/1522.' How should a CFII explain this remark to an instrument student?Weather
  45. 95.A pilot is assigned the Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA) of 4,500 feet for a Victor airway segment. The aircraft is currently 30 nautical miles from the VOR defining that airway. What limitation applies to using the MOCA at this distance?Instrument Regulations
  46. 96.While writing a lesson plan for a holding pattern lesson, a CFII includes the statement: 'The student will enter and fly a published holding pattern within ACS tolerances for airspeed, timing, and track.' Within the standard elements of a lesson plan, this statement is best classified as the:Instructional Techniques
  47. 97.A pilot is arriving via an RNAV route depicted with a Terminal Arrival Area (TAA) surrounding the IAFs of an RNAV (GPS) approach. The TAA is divided into sectors, each providing minimum altitudes for obstacle clearance. Which of the following is one of the three standard TAA sectors?IFR Procedures and Approaches
  48. 98.A pilot performs a dual VOR receiver accuracy check by tuning both navigation receivers to the same VOR station while on the ground. According to 14 CFR 91.171, the maximum permissible difference between the two indicated bearings isInstruments and Systems
  49. 99.A commercial pilot's most recent record shows six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigation systems, all completed 5 months and 20 days ago. Tonight the pilot wants to file and fly an IFR flight plan in actual instrument conditions. Under 14 CFR 61.57(c), is the pilot current to act as PIC under IFR?Instrument Regulations
  50. 100.An aircraft is executing a published missed approach procedure that specifies a climb gradient of 260 feet per nautical mile to 4,000 feet MSL. During the climb, the aircraft's groundspeed is 120 knots. What minimum rate of climb, in feet per minute, must the pilot maintain to comply with the published gradient?IFR Procedures and Approaches