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FAA Airline Transport Pilot (ATM)

Practice bank
300 Qs
Real exam
125 Qs
Time limit
240 min
Passing
70%

Exam blueprint

Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)
24%
Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations
18%
Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance
16%
Meteorology and Weather Services
16%
Navigation, Air Traffic Control and Procedures
14%
Human Factors and CRM
12%

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FAA Airline Transport Pilot (ATM) practice test questions

Sample questions from the 300-question bank, with answers and explanations.

All questions
  1. 1. A transport aircraft in cruise inadvertently exceeds Vmo/Mmo, triggering the overspeed warning ('clacker'), requiring the crew to reduce speed immediately. What primary structural/aerodynamic hazard does the Vmo/Mmo limit protect against, distinct from stall or low-speed buffet concerns?

    Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations

    • A. Flutter, control surface reversal, and structural loads/divergence as speed approaches the design dive speed margin
    • B. Loss of cabin pressurization caused by increased dynamic pressure on the fuselage
    • C. Insufficient engine thrust available to sustain the higher speed in level flight
    • D. Excessive fuel consumption resulting from operating above the optimum cruise speed
    Show answer

    A. Flutter, control surface reversal, and structural loads/divergence as speed approaches the design dive speed margin

    Vmo/Mmo are set with a margin below the design dive speed (Vd/Md) to protect against aeroelastic phenomena such as flutter, control surface reversal, and structural divergence, as well as excessive structural loads—hazards unrelated to stall or buffet at the low-speed end.

  2. 2. Per 14 CFR Part 25 certification standards, the net takeoff flight path (gross flight path reduced by the required gradient decrements) must clear all obstacles within the obstacle accountability area by what minimum margin?

    Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance

    • A. 35 feet vertically, or 90 feet horizontally while still within the boundaries of the airport
    • B. 50 feet vertically only, with no horizontal clearance credit permitted
    • C. 35 feet vertically, or 200 feet horizontally beyond the airport boundary
    • D. 15 feet vertically, or 50 feet horizontally within the airport boundary
    Show answer

    A. 35 feet vertically, or 90 feet horizontally while still within the boundaries of the airport

    Part 25 requires the net takeoff flight path to clear all obstacles by at least 35 feet vertically, or by 90 feet horizontally within the boundaries of the airport and 50 feet plus 0.125 times the horizontal distance traveled beyond the airport boundary (up to 300 feet). The 35-foot vertical / 90-foot horizontal-within-airport figures are the foundational clearance standard.

  3. 3. A junior first officer notices the captain is configuring the aircraft for an approach that appears unstable but hesitates to speak up due to the captain's seniority and experience. This scenario best illustrates a breakdown related to:

    Human Factors and CRM

    • A. Workload management
    • B. Confirmation bias
    • C. Authority gradient
    • D. Vigilance decrement
    Show answer

    C. Authority gradient

    Authority gradient refers to the perceived difference in rank, experience, or authority between crewmembers that can inhibit a junior crewmember from voicing concerns or challenging a senior pilot's decisions, a key CRM concept tied to communication and assertiveness training.

  4. 4. A dispatcher is computing the maximum allowable landing weight for a turbojet transport at the destination airport under 14 CFR Part 121. The effective runway length is 9,000 feet. Per the destination airport landing distance rule, what is the maximum landing distance the airplane's performance data may show for dispatch?

    Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance

    • A. 4,500 feet
    • B. 6,000 feet
    • C. 5,400 feet
    • D. 7,650 feet
    Show answer

    C. 5,400 feet

    Under the Part 121 destination airport 'landing 60% rule,' the airplane's actual demonstrated landing distance may not exceed 60% of the effective runway length. 9,000 ft × 0.60 = 5,400 ft.

  5. 5. A dispatcher reviewing radar data notes that a thunderstorm cell now shows predominantly weakening downdrafts, diminishing rainfall intensity, and a cloud top that has flattened into a spreading anvil shape. Which stage of the thunderstorm life cycle is this cell in?

    Meteorology and Weather Services

    • A. Cumulus stage
    • B. Mature stage
    • C. Developing stage
    • D. Dissipating stage
    Show answer

    D. Dissipating stage

    The dissipating stage is characterized by weakening downdrafts throughout the cell, decreasing precipitation, and the anvil-shaped cloud top spreading downwind, as the storm loses its supply of warm, moist updraft air.

  6. 6. During cruise, a pilot momentarily releases the flight controls while the aircraft is in a shallow bank. Over the next minute, without any pilot input, the bank angle and turn rate slowly and continuously increase. This tendency indicates the aircraft has:

    Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations

    • A. Neutral static longitudinal stability
    • B. Strong positive dihedral effect combined with weak directional stability
    • C. Dutch roll tendency caused by yaw damper failure
    • D. Spiral instability, where directional (weathercock) stability dominates over dihedral effect
    Show answer

    D. Spiral instability, where directional (weathercock) stability dominates over dihedral effect

    Spiral instability occurs when directional (weathercock) stability is strong relative to dihedral effect. In a bank, the aircraft yaws into the turn due to strong directional stability, which increases lift on the outer wing and steepens the bank, creating a slow, continuously tightening spiral if hands-off.

  7. 7. A pilot flying an overnight cargo flight has been awake since 6:00 a.m. and is now attempting to land at 4:00 a.m. after 22 hours of continuous wakefulness. The primary human factors concern in this scenario is that performance degradation from this level of fatigue is comparable to a blood alcohol concentration of approximately:

    Human Factors and CRM

    • A. 0.16 percent
    • B. 0.10 percent
    • C. 0.05 percent
    • D. 0.02 percent
    Show answer

    B. 0.10 percent

    Research on sleep deprivation has found that being awake for approximately 17-19 hours produces performance impairment equivalent to a BAC of 0.05%, and 24 hours awake is roughly equivalent to 0.10% BAC. At 22 hours awake, the pilot's impairment is approaching the 0.10% level, exceeding the 0.08% legal driving limit in most states.

  8. 8. A transport aircraft has a wings-level 1g stall speed of 120 KIAS. During a steady 45° banked turn, what is the approximate new stall speed?

    Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations

    • A. 143 KIAS
    • B. 127 KIAS
    • C. 120 KIAS
    • D. 170 KIAS
    Show answer

    A. 143 KIAS

    Load factor in a 45° bank = 1/cos(45°) = 1.414. Stall speed increases with the square root of load factor: 120 × √1.414 = 120 × 1.189 ≈ 143 KIAS.

  9. 9. An aircraft has an empty weight of 92,000 lb at CG station 610.0. Fuel of 20,000 lb is loaded at station 650.0, and cargo of 8,000 lb is loaded at station 700.0. What is the resulting aircraft CG station?

    Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance

    • A. Station 650.0
    • B. Station 610.0
    • C. Station 622.7
    • D. Station 635.4
    Show answer

    C. Station 622.7

    Total moment = (92,000×610)+(20,000×650)+(8,000×700) = 56,120,000 + 13,000,000 + 5,600,000 = 74,720,000. Total weight = 92,000+20,000+8,000 = 120,000 lb. CG = 74,720,000/120,000 = 622.67, which rounds to station 622.7.

  10. 10. A Boeing 737 (large category) is being sequenced for approach behind an Airbus A380 (super category) on the same runway. What minimum radar separation must ATC apply between the two aircraft?

    Navigation, Air Traffic Control and Procedures

    • A. 4 nautical miles
    • B. 6 nautical miles
    • C. 5 nautical miles
    • D. 7 nautical miles
    Show answer

    D. 7 nautical miles

    Per FAA Order JO 7110.65, when a large aircraft follows a super category aircraft (such as the A380) for approach or departure, ATC must apply 7 nautical miles of radar separation due to the severity of wake turbulence generated by super category aircraft.

  11. 11. A flight instructor is conducting a flight review under 14 CFR 61.56 for a pilot who does not qualify for any of the recency exceptions. What is the minimum ground and flight training that must be included in the review?

    Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)

    • A. 1 hour of ground training only, with no flight training required
    • B. 30 minutes of ground training and 30 minutes of flight training
    • C. 2 hours of ground training and 1 hour of flight training
    • D. 1 hour of ground training and 1 hour of flight training
    Show answer

    D. 1 hour of ground training and 1 hour of flight training

    14 CFR 61.56(a) requires a flight review to consist of a minimum of 1 hour of flight training and 1 hour of ground training, conducted by an authorized instructor, covering a review of the current general operating and flight rules of Part 91 and maneuvers/procedures the instructor determines necessary.

  12. 12. While flying in IMC during a prolonged, steady turn, a pilot briefly tilts her head down to check a chart on her kneeboard. Immediately afterward, she experiences a sudden, intense sensation of tumbling or rotating about a completely different axis than the actual turn. This illusion is known as:

    Human Factors and CRM

    • A. The Coriolis illusion
    • B. The somatogravic illusion
    • C. Spatial disorientation from vestibular habituation
    • D. The leans
    Show answer

    A. The Coriolis illusion

    The Coriolis illusion occurs when a pilot moves their head out of the plane of an ongoing turn, stimulating multiple semicircular canals simultaneously and creating a false, often violent sensation of rotation or tumbling about a different axis. It is considered one of the most disorienting and dangerous vestibular illusions.

  13. 13. A transport aircraft has a Vmo of 340 KIAS and an Mmo of 0.82. During a climb at a constant 340 KIAS, at approximately what point does the applicable maximum operating limit speed change from being defined by Vmo to being defined by Mmo?

    Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations

    • A. At FL180, the standard transition altitude used by all transport aircraft
    • B. At the tropopause, regardless of the specific Vmo/Mmo values
    • C. At the crossover altitude where 340 KIAS corresponds to Mach 0.82
    • D. At the altitude where true airspeed first equals Mach 0.82
    Show answer

    C. At the crossover altitude where 340 KIAS corresponds to Mach 0.82

    As altitude increases at a constant IAS, TAS increases while the local speed of sound decreases (until the tropopause), so the Mach number corresponding to that IAS rises. The crossover altitude is where 340 KIAS equals Mach 0.82; above it, Mmo becomes the limiting speed, below it Vmo governs.

  14. 14. An air traffic controller issues a clearance using unfamiliar local phraseology not found in the Pilot/Controller Glossary, causing the flight crew to misinterpret the instruction and read back an incorrect altitude. This event is best classified as a failure due to:

    Human Factors and CRM

    • A. A communication barrier from non-standard phraseology
    • B. Normalization of deviance
    • C. Automation complacency
    • D. Sterile cockpit violation
    Show answer

    A. A communication barrier from non-standard phraseology

    Effective communication relies on standardized, clear phraseology; when non-standard or unfamiliar terms are used, they create a barrier that increases the risk of misunderstanding, as occurred here. This is unrelated to sterile cockpit rules, gradual erosion of standards, or automation trust.

  15. 15. A dispatcher notes that the departure airport's density altitude is significantly higher than the field elevation due to high temperature. What is the primary performance effect on the jet's takeoff?

    Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance

    • A. No change in performance since jet engines are unaffected by density altitude
    • B. Increased engine thrust output and decreased takeoff distance required
    • C. Reduced stall speed, allowing an earlier rotation
    • D. Reduced engine thrust output and increased takeoff distance required
    Show answer

    D. Reduced engine thrust output and increased takeoff distance required

    High density altitude means lower air density, which reduces engine thrust, decreases lift for a given true airspeed, and reduces propeller/rotor efficiency, all of which increase the required takeoff distance.

  16. 16. A transport-category airplane in cruise flight encounters a gust that produces a momentary sideslip to the right. As a result, the right (windward) wing develops a higher angle of attack and more lift than the left wing, producing a rolling moment that returns the wings to level without pilot input. This self-correcting tendency is primarily the result of which design feature?

    Transport Aerodynamics and High-Altitude Operations

    • A. Adverse yaw from aileron deflection
    • B. Spiral instability
    • C. Wing washout
    • D. Positive wing dihedral
    Show answer

    D. Positive wing dihedral

    Positive dihedral causes the windward (lower) wing in a sideslip to meet the relative wind at a higher effective angle of attack, generating more lift and a restoring rolling moment toward wings-level, which is the classic 'dihedral effect' contributing to lateral stability.

  17. 17. An airliner experiences two-way radio communications failure while operating IFR in IMC, prior to reaching the last assigned altitude. ATC's last transmission assigned a climb to FL350, but the MEA for the current route segment is FL310, and no altitude was included in the route clearance as 'expect.' What altitude should the pilot maintain?

    Navigation, Air Traffic Control and Procedures

    • A. The altitude at the time of failure, regardless of MEA or assignment
    • B. The lowest usable altitude for the aircraft's weight
    • C. FL350, the last assigned altitude
    • D. FL310, the MEA for the segment
    Show answer

    C. FL350, the last assigned altitude

    Per 14 CFR 91.185, during two-way radio failure the pilot must fly the highest of the MEA, the last assigned altitude, or an expected altitude for that route segment; since FL350 (last assigned) is higher than the FL310 MEA and no expected altitude was given, FL350 must be maintained.

  18. 18. An airline's Part 121 training program is developing a type rating course for the Airbus A320 using a Level D full flight simulator. Under 14 CFR 61.31 and applicable training program provisions, which statement is correct regarding completion of the type rating practical test?

    Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)

    • A. Simulators may only be used for the oral portion of the practical test, not maneuvers
    • B. A type rating cannot be added through a simulator-based practical test under any circumstances
    • C. The entire practical test, including takeoffs and landings, may be conducted in an FAA-approved Level C or D full flight simulator as part of an approved training program
    • D. The practical test must always include at least one takeoff and landing in the actual aircraft
    Show answer

    C. The entire practical test, including takeoffs and landings, may be conducted in an FAA-approved Level C or D full flight simulator as part of an approved training program

    Under FAA-approved Part 121/142 training programs, a candidate may complete the entire type rating practical test, including takeoffs and landings, in a qualified Level C or D full flight simulator without ever flying the actual aircraft, provided the simulator is approved to the appropriate level for that maneuver credit.

  19. 19. A Part 121 operator's maintenance team is verifying flight data recorder (FDR) compliance under 14 CFR 121.343. What is the minimum number of hours of flight data the FDR must be capable of retaining?

    Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)

    • A. 25 hours
    • B. 8 hours
    • C. 2 hours
    • D. 50 hours
    Show answer

    A. 25 hours

    14 CFR 121.343 requires that the flight data recorder retain at least the last 25 hours of its recorded information, capturing parameters such as altitude, airspeed, heading, and control surface positions to support accident investigations.

  20. 20. Per 14 CFR Part 25 certification standards, after the airplane has completed flap retraction and reached a clean configuration with the critical engine inoperative, the airplane enters the final segment of the takeoff flight path and continues climbing to at least 1,500 feet AGL. For a two-engine airplane, what is the minimum required climb gradient during this final segment?

    Aircraft Performance and Weight and Balance

    • A. 2.4%
    • B. 1.2%
    • C. 3.0%
    • D. 0.5%
    Show answer

    B. 1.2%

    The final (fourth) segment climb gradient requirement for a two-engine transport category airplane, with one engine inoperative in the clean configuration and maximum continuous thrust, is a minimum of 1.2%. This is lower than the second-segment requirement (2.4% for two engines) because thrust is reduced from takeoff to maximum continuous.

  21. 21. A commercial pilot with 1,500 hours of total flight time plans to take the FAA ATP (airplane) knowledge test to pursue a multiengine class rating. Under 14 CFR 61.156, what must the pilot complete before taking that knowledge test?

    Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)

    • A. A type rating in any aircraft over 12,500 pounds
    • B. An FAA-approved Airline Transport Pilot Certification Training Program (CTP)
    • C. A 61.58 pilot-in-command proficiency check in a turbojet
    • D. 500 hours of turbine PIC time
    Show answer

    B. An FAA-approved Airline Transport Pilot Certification Training Program (CTP)

    14 CFR 61.156 requires an applicant for an ATP certificate with an airplane category multiengine class rating to complete an FAA-approved Airline Transport Pilot Certification Training Program (CTP) before taking the ATP knowledge test.

  22. 22. A pilot conducting a VOR operational check under 14 CFR 91.171 cross-checks two independent VOR receivers against each other in flight because no VOT or designated ground checkpoint is available. What is the maximum allowable difference between the two indicated bearings for the check to be satisfactory?

    Navigation, Air Traffic Control and Procedures

    • A. 8 degrees
    • B. 2 degrees
    • C. 6 degrees
    • D. 4 degrees
    Show answer

    D. 4 degrees

    Per 91.171, when checking dual VOR receivers against each other, the maximum permissible difference between the two indicated bearings to the same station is 4 degrees. VOT and ground checkpoints allow ±4°, while airborne checkpoints allow ±6°, but the dual-receiver cross-check tolerance is 4 degrees.

  23. 23. A winds and temperatures aloft forecast (FD) for FL390 contains the coded group '731352'. Given that above 24,000 feet, 50 has been added to the coded direction and 100 subtracted from the coded speed whenever wind speeds are forecast between 100 and 199 knots, what are the decoded wind direction, speed, and temperature?

    Meteorology and Weather Services

    • A. 280° at 13 knots, -52°C
    • B. 730° at 13 knots, 52°C
    • C. 130° at 135 knots, -52°C
    • D. 230° at 113 knots, -52°C
    Show answer

    D. 230° at 113 knots, -52°C

    Decoding '73': subtract 50 to get 23, giving direction 230°. Decoding '13': add 100 to get 113 knots. The temperature group '52' is read as -52°C because temperatures above 24,000 feet are always negative and the sign is omitted in the code.

  24. 24. A pilot files a PIREP stating that occasional use of the deicing boots removes ice accumulation, but the encounter could become a problem if the flight in icing conditions were extended beyond one hour. Which icing intensity should be reported?

    Meteorology and Weather Services

    • A. Severe
    • B. Trace
    • C. Light
    • D. Moderate
    Show answer

    C. Light

    Light icing is defined as an accumulation rate that could create a problem if the flight is extended in icing conditions for more than one hour, with occasional use of deicing/anti-icing equipment removing or preventing accumulation. Trace icing is barely perceptible and rarely requires equipment use; moderate and severe require more urgent action or diversion.

  25. 25. A Part 121 dispatcher is planning a flight duty period that includes a scheduled split duty rest period to extend the maximum FDP under 14 CFR 117.15. What is the minimum length of the scheduled rest period, provided in a suitable accommodation, required to qualify for a split duty extension?

    Regulations (14 CFR 117/121/61)

    • A. 5 consecutive hours
    • B. 3 consecutive hours
    • C. 2 consecutive hours
    • D. 8 consecutive hours
    Show answer

    B. 3 consecutive hours

    14 CFR 117.15 requires the scheduled split duty rest period to be at least 3 consecutive hours long and occur in a suitable accommodation for the extension to be applied to the maximum FDP in Table B. Shorter breaks do not qualify for the split duty extension.

FAA Airline Transport Pilot (ATM) flashcards

Tap a card to flip it. 288 flashcards in the full deck.

  • Vmo/Mmo Structural Protection

    Flip card

    Vmo/Mmo are certified speed limits providing margin below the design dive speed (Vd/Md) to prevent flutter, control reversal, and structural divergence.

    • Vd/Md is the design dive speed used in flutter/structural certification
    • Vmo/Mmo include margin below Vd/Md for safety
    • Exceeding Vmo/Mmo risks aeroelastic instability, not stall
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  • Net Takeoff Flight Path Obstacle Clearance

    Flip card

    The net flight path (gross path reduced by required gradient decrements) must clear obstacles by at least 35 feet vertically, or 90 feet horizontally while within airport boundaries.

    • Net flight path = gross flight path minus gradient decrement (0.8% for 2-engine).
    • Vertical clearance minimum: 35 feet.
    • Horizontal clearance within airport boundary: 90 feet.
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  • Authority Gradient

    Flip card

    The perceived power distance between crewmembers of different rank or experience that can affect communication and assertiveness in the cockpit.

    • A steep gradient can silence junior crew from raising safety concerns
    • A too-flat gradient can undermine command authority and discipline
    • CRM training promotes assertive communication regardless of rank
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  • 60% Landing Distance Rule

    Flip card

    For turbojets under Part 121, dispatch landing distance at the destination must not exceed 60% of the effective (usable) runway length.

    • Applies at destination for turbojets
    • 60% factor built in for safety margin
    • Alternate airport typically requires a different (less restrictive) margin
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  • Thunderstorm Dissipating Stage

    Flip card

    The final stage of a thunderstorm's life cycle, dominated by weakening downdrafts as the storm's updraft is cut off, leading to decreasing precipitation and turbulence.

    • Downdrafts spread out and cut off the warm moist inflow
    • Precipitation and lightning gradually decrease
    • Anvil cloud top remains and spreads downwind
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  • Spiral Instability

    Flip card

    A lateral-directional stability characteristic where strong directional (weathercock) stability relative to dihedral effect causes a bank to slowly and continuously steepen without pilot input, unlike the oscillatory nature of Dutch roll.

    • Caused by directional stability exceeding dihedral effect
    • Produces a slow, non-oscillatory divergence in bank angle
    • Opposite imbalance (too much dihedral, too little directional stability) causes Dutch roll tendency
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  • Fatigue and Wakefulness Impairment

    Flip card

    Extended wakefulness produces cognitive and motor impairment comparable to alcohol intoxication, a key concept in fatigue risk management for flight crews.

    • 17 hours awake ≈ 0.05% BAC impairment
    • 24 hours awake ≈ 0.10% BAC impairment
    • Circadian low points (0200-0600) worsen fatigue effects
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  • Bank Angle Effect on Stall Speed

    Flip card

    Stall speed increases with the square root of load factor (n), and load factor increases as 1/cos(bank angle) in a level turn.

    • 45° bank: n=1.41, Vs increases ~19%
    • 60° bank: n=2, Vs increases ~41%
    • Steep turns significantly raise stall speed margin needs
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  • Weight & Balance Moment Calculation

    Flip card

    Aircraft CG is found by summing all component moments (weight × arm) and dividing by total weight.

    • Moment = weight × arm (station)
    • CG = total moment / total weight
    • Must include all loaded items: empty weight, fuel, payload, cargo
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  • Wake Turbulence Radar Separation

    Flip card

    ATC applies increased radar separation minimums between aircraft of different wake turbulence categories, with the largest spacing required behind super category aircraft like the A380.

    • Super leading, Heavy following: 6 NM
    • Super leading, Large/Small following: 7 NM
    • Heavy leading, Heavy following: 4 NM
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  • Flight Review Minimum Content (61.56)

    Flip card

    A flight review under 14 CFR 61.56 must include at least 1 hour of flight training and 1 hour of ground training covering Part 91 rules and maneuvers as determined necessary by the instructor.

    • Minimum 1 hour ground + 1 hour flight training
    • Conducted by an authorized instructor
    • Certain checks/practical tests can substitute for the review
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  • Coriolis Illusion

    Flip card

    A vestibular illusion caused by moving the head out of the plane of a sustained turn, stimulating multiple semicircular canals and producing a false sensation of rotation on a different axis.

    • Triggered specifically by head movement during a prolonged turn
    • Considered one of the most severe and disorienting illusions
    • Avoided by minimizing head movements during turns in IMC
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  • Vmo/Mmo Crossover Altitude

    Flip card

    The altitude at which a constant Vmo (in KIAS) and the aircraft's Mmo (Mach limit) produce the same speed; above it Mmo limits, below it Vmo limits.

    • Below crossover altitude, Vmo (KIAS) is the limiting speed
    • Above crossover altitude, Mmo (Mach) is the limiting speed
    • Crossover altitude depends on the specific Vmo and Mmo values for the aircraft
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  • Communication Barriers

    Flip card

    Factors such as non-standard phraseology, jargon, noise, or language differences that impede accurate transmission and understanding of information.

    • Standard phraseology reduces ambiguity
    • Barriers include noise, accents, jargon, and workload
    • Closed-loop communication helps catch resulting errors
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  • Density Altitude Effect on Takeoff

    Flip card

    High density altitude (from heat, humidity, or elevation) reduces air density, decreasing engine thrust and aerodynamic lift, thereby increasing takeoff distance.

    • Hot, humid, high-elevation airports have higher density altitude
    • Reduced thrust and lift both increase required runway length
    • Affects both piston and turbine aircraft
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  • Dihedral Effect

    Flip card

    The tendency of a wing with positive dihedral to generate a restoring rolling moment toward wings-level flight when the aircraft sideslips.

    • Windward wing gets higher effective AoA in a sideslip, producing more lift.
    • Positive dihedral is a primary contributor to lateral (roll) stability.
    • Excessive dihedral effect can contribute to unwanted dutch roll tendencies.
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  • Lost Communication Altitude Rule (91.185)

    Flip card

    During IFR two-way radio failure, a pilot must fly the highest of the minimum en route altitude (MEA), an expected altitude given by ATC, or the last assigned altitude for each route segment.

    • Route: as assigned, vectored, expected, or filed (AVEF)
    • Altitude: highest of MEA, expected, or assigned (MEA)
    • Rule applies specifically under 14 CFR 91.185
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  • Simulator-Based Type Rating

    Flip card

    FAA-approved Level C/D full flight simulators may be used to complete an entire type rating practical test, including takeoffs and landings, without flying the actual aircraft, under approved Part 121/142 training programs.

    • Requires Level C or D FFS qualification
    • Zero-flight-time (ZFT) training programs permitted
    • Applies within FAA-approved training curricula, not casual training
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  • FDR Retention (121.343)

    Flip card

    Part 121 flight data recorders must retain at least the last 25 hours of recorded flight parameters for accident/incident investigation purposes.

    • Minimum retention: 25 hours
    • Records parameters like altitude, airspeed, heading, attitude
    • Distinct from CVR's 2-hour audio retention requirement
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  • Final (Fourth) Segment Climb

    Flip card

    The portion of the one-engine-inoperative takeoff flight path from clean configuration acceleration to 1,500 feet AGL, flown at maximum continuous thrust.

    • Two-engine minimum gradient: 1.2%.
    • Occurs after flap retraction (third/acceleration segment).
    • Uses maximum continuous thrust rather than takeoff thrust.
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  • ATP CTP Requirement (61.156)

    Flip card

    Applicants for an ATP certificate with airplane multiengine class rating must complete an approved Airline Transport Pilot Certification Training Program before taking the knowledge test.

    • Includes academic and simulator training
    • Required before the ATP knowledge test, not just the checkride
    • Does not apply to single-engine ATP applicants
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  • VOR Operational Check (91.171)

    Flip card

    A required periodic accuracy check of VOR equipment before flight under IFR, with different tolerances depending on the check method used.

    • VOT check tolerance: ±4 degrees
    • Ground checkpoint tolerance: ±4 degrees
    • Airborne checkpoint tolerance: ±6 degrees
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  • Winds Aloft (FD) High-Altitude Coding

    Flip card

    For forecast levels at or above 24,000 feet, when coded wind speed would be 100-199 knots, 50 is added to the direction code (in tens of degrees) and 100 is subtracted from the speed to keep the six-digit group format.

    • Direction is given in tens of degrees, speed in knots, temperature in °C
    • At/above 24,000 ft, temperatures are always negative and the sign is omitted
    • Decode by reversing the adjustment: subtract 50 from direction code, add 100 to speed code
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  • Icing Intensity PIREP Scale

    Flip card

    A 4-level scale (Trace, Light, Moderate, Severe) used in PIREPs to describe the rate and hazard of airframe ice accumulation.

    • Light: problem if extended beyond 1 hour, occasional deice use
    • Moderate: even short encounters hazardous, equipment or diversion needed
    • Severe: deicing equipment fails to control hazard, immediate diversion required
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