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California Real Estate Salesperson

Practice bank
227 Qs
Real exam
150 Qs
Time limit
180 min
Passing
70% (105 of 150)

Exam blueprint

Property Ownership and Land Use Controls
15%
Laws of Agency and Fiduciary Duties
17%
Property Valuation and Financial Analysis
14%
Financing
9%
Transfer of Property
8%
Practice of Real Estate and Disclosures
25%
Contracts
12%

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California Real Estate Salesperson practice test questions

Sample questions from the 227-question bank, with answers and explanations.

All questions
  1. 1. A broker receives a $5,000 earnest money deposit from a buyer on Monday. According to California trust fund handling rules, by when must the broker deposit these funds into a trust account or the seller's account, if not held uncashed per instructions?

    Practice of Real Estate and Disclosures

    • A. Within 10 business days of receipt
    • B. By the end of the same business day
    • C. Within 3 business days of receipt
    • D. Within 5 calendar days of receipt
    Show answer

    C. Within 3 business days of receipt

    California law (Commissioner's Regulations) requires brokers to deposit trust funds into a neutral escrow depository or trust account no later than 3 business days following receipt, unless the funds are held uncashed pursuant to instructions.

  2. 2. An agent negotiating the sale of a client's property arranges to resell it immediately to a third party at a higher price, pocketing the difference without telling the seller. What legal doctrine addresses this violation?

    Laws of Agency and Fiduciary Duties

    • A. The doctrine of caveat emptor
    • B. The doctrine of merger, which absorbs prior agreements into the deed
    • C. The doctrine of secret profits, requiring the agent to disgorge any undisclosed gain
    • D. The doctrine of laches, barring the seller's claim due to delay
    Show answer

    C. The doctrine of secret profits, requiring the agent to disgorge any undisclosed gain

    An agent who secretly profits from a transaction at the principal's expense violates the fiduciary duty of full disclosure and loyalty. Under the secret profit doctrine, the principal can recover the undisclosed profit and may rescind the transaction.

  3. 3. A purchase agreement includes a clause stating 'time is of the essence' and requires the buyer to remove all contingencies by June 1. The buyer fails to remove contingencies until June 5, with no extension granted by the seller. What is the legal effect of this delay?

    Contracts

    • A. The seller may treat the contract as breached and may be entitled to cancel
    • B. The contract automatically converts to a month-to-month agreement
    • C. The buyer's delay is excused because contingency removal dates are not enforceable
    • D. The delay is immaterial because California law allows a 5-day grace period
    Show answer

    A. The seller may treat the contract as breached and may be entitled to cancel

    A 'time is of the essence' clause makes strict compliance with stated deadlines a material term of the contract. Missing the deadline without an agreed extension constitutes a breach, giving the seller the right to cancel or pursue remedies.

  4. 4. A person has openly farmed and fenced a strip of vacant land under a defective deed for 6 years, paying property taxes on it each year based on the assessed description in that deed. The true owner never objected. What is required for this person to acquire title by adverse possession in California?

    Property Ownership and Land Use Controls

    • A. Continuous possession for 20 years regardless of tax payments
    • B. Open possession for 10 years without any tax payment requirement
    • C. Open, hostile, and continuous possession for 5 years, plus payment of taxes
    • D. Written permission from the true owner recorded for 5 years
    Show answer

    C. Open, hostile, and continuous possession for 5 years, plus payment of taxes

    California requires adverse possession to be open, notorious, hostile, continuous, and exclusive for 5 years, AND the claimant must have paid all property taxes assessed against the property during that 5-year period.

  5. 5. A salesperson posts a property listing on her personal Instagram account. Under DRE advertising regulations, the post must include:

    Practice of Real Estate and Disclosures

    • A. No broker identification, since social media is not regulated advertising
    • B. The responsible broker's identity as it appears in DRE license records
    • C. Only the salesperson's personal cell phone number
    • D. A disclaimer that the post is not an official advertisement
    Show answer

    B. The responsible broker's identity as it appears in DRE license records

    California advertising regulations require that all advertising by a salesperson, including social media, disclose the identity of the responsible broker under whom the salesperson is licensed, to avoid misleading the public.

  6. 6. A homeowner remodels and slightly expands an existing single-family kitchen without significantly increasing the building's footprint. Under CEQA, this project would most likely be treated as:

    Property Ownership and Land Use Controls

    • A. Subject to mandatory public referendum
    • B. Categorically exempt from CEQA review
    • C. Subject to a full Environmental Impact Report
    • D. Approvable only after a negative declaration is filed
    Show answer

    B. Categorically exempt from CEQA review

    CEQA provides categorical exemptions for classes of projects that the state has determined do not have a significant effect on the environment, including minor alterations to existing private structures like small residential additions. Such projects do not require an EIR or negative declaration.

  7. 7. A property manager runs a classified ad stating: 'Charming 2BR apartment — perfect for a single professional, no children please.' Under fair housing law, this advertisement is:

    Practice of Real Estate and Disclosures

    • A. Legal as long as the unit is a studio or one-bedroom
    • B. A violation only if a family with children actually applies and is rejected
    • C. A violation of fair housing law because it expresses a preference based on familial status
    • D. Legal, because it simply states the owner's rental preference
    Show answer

    C. A violation of fair housing law because it expresses a preference based on familial status

    The Fair Housing Act and California FEHA prohibit advertisements that indicate a preference, limitation, or discrimination based on familial status. 'No children' language is discriminatory on its face regardless of whether an actual family applies.

  8. 8. A seller conveys title to a buyer using a grant deed. Which covenant is automatically implied by law even though it is not written in the deed?

    Transfer of Property

    • A. The grantor will defend the title against all claims forever
    • B. The grantor has clear and marketable title of record
    • C. The property is free of all liens and encumbrances
    • D. The grantor has not previously conveyed the same property to another person
    Show answer

    D. The grantor has not previously conveyed the same property to another person

    California grant deeds carry two implied warranties: (1) the grantor has not already conveyed the property to someone else, and (2) the estate is free from encumbrances made by the grantor, except those disclosed. A full warranty of defending title forever is a feature of a warranty deed, not a grant deed.

  9. 9. Two cooperating brokers dispute which of them was the 'procuring cause' of a completed sale for commission-splitting purposes. Which best describes how this dispute is typically resolved in California?

    Laws of Agency and Fiduciary Duties

    • A. The buyer decides which broker receives the commission
    • B. It is typically resolved through MLS or association arbitration, not by the DRE
    • C. The listing agreement automatically awards the full commission to the listing broker
    • D. The DRE issues a binding ruling on procuring cause
    Show answer

    B. It is typically resolved through MLS or association arbitration, not by the DRE

    Procuring cause disputes between cooperating brokers are contractual matters typically resolved through arbitration procedures established by the Multiple Listing Service or local Realtor association, not through DRE licensing action, since the DRE does not adjudicate commission disputes between brokers.

  10. 10. Under Civil Code Section 2079, a listing agent's duty to conduct a 'reasonably competent and diligent visual inspection' of a residential property applies to which areas?

    Practice of Real Estate and Disclosures

    • A. Only areas specifically requested by the buyer in writing
    • B. Only areas visible from the street
    • C. All areas of the property, including those not reasonably accessible such as the roof interior
    • D. Areas that are reasonably and normally accessible to the agent, excluding areas that are not reasonably accessible
    Show answer

    D. Areas that are reasonably and normally accessible to the agent, excluding areas that are not reasonably accessible

    California Civil Code Section 2079 requires listing agents to conduct a visual inspection of areas that are reasonably and normally accessible, such as walking through rooms and visible spaces, but does not require entering inaccessible areas like attics, crawlspaces without access, or the roof.

  11. 11. A single woman purchases a condominium using only her own funds and takes title in her name alone, with no co-owners. This form of ownership is known as holding title in:

    Property Ownership and Land Use Controls

    • A. Severalty
    • B. Community property
    • C. Tenancy in common
    • D. Joint tenancy
    Show answer

    A. Severalty

    When one person owns property alone, without any co-owners, the ownership is described as 'in severalty,' meaning the title is severed from all others. The other options all involve two or more owners.

  12. 12. A housing complex wants to qualify for the 'housing for older persons' exemption from familial status discrimination claims under fair housing law. Which requirement must the complex satisfy?

    Practice of Real Estate and Disclosures

    • A. Any complex may claim the exemption simply by advertising itself as 'adults only'
    • B. At least 80% of occupied units must have at least one occupant age 55 or older, and the complex must publish policies demonstrating intent to house older persons
    • C. At least 50% of units must house persons age 62 or older, with no additional documentation required
    • D. The complex must house only persons age 65 or older with absolutely no exceptions permitted
    Show answer

    B. At least 80% of occupied units must have at least one occupant age 55 or older, and the complex must publish policies demonstrating intent to house older persons

    Under the Housing for Older Persons Act (HOPA), a '55 and older' community must have at least 80% of occupied units with at least one resident age 55 or older, and must publish and adhere to policies and procedures demonstrating an intent to operate as senior housing. Simply advertising as 'adults only' does not qualify for the exemption and would itself violate fair housing law.

  13. 13. A broker is representing both the buyer and seller in a sale of a single-family residence. According to California license law, when must the Agency Disclosure form be presented to the seller?

    Practice of Real Estate and Disclosures

    • A. Before the seller signs the listing agreement
    • B. Only at the close of escrow
    • C. Only if the buyer requests it in writing
    • D. At the time the buyer's offer is accepted
    Show answer

    A. Before the seller signs the listing agreement

    California Civil Code requires that an agency disclosure be provided to the seller before entering into a listing agreement, ensuring the seller understands the nature of the agency relationship from the outset.

  14. 14. An appraiser is calculating total accrued depreciation for a property using the cost approach. The reproduction cost new is $400,000. The appraiser identifies $40,000 in physical deterioration, $15,000 in functional obsolescence, and $10,000 in external obsolescence. What percentage of the reproduction cost new does the total accrued depreciation represent?

    Property Valuation and Financial Analysis

    • A. 16.25%
    • B. 20%
    • C. 13.75%
    • D. 10%
    Show answer

    A. 16.25%

    Total accrued depreciation = $40,000 + $15,000 + $10,000 = $65,000. Percentage = $65,000 ÷ $400,000 = 16.25%.

  15. 15. A developer wants to build a hospital in a zone that permits hospitals only with special governmental approval due to traffic and noise concerns. Which land use approval must the developer obtain?

    Property Ownership and Land Use Controls

    • A. A zoning variance
    • B. A general plan amendment
    • C. A conditional use permit
    • D. A certificate of occupancy
    Show answer

    C. A conditional use permit

    A conditional use permit (CUP) allows a use that is recognized as appropriate for a zone but only under specific conditions imposed by the local government to mitigate impacts like traffic or noise.

  16. 16. A salesperson working under a broker accepts a trust fund deposit from a buyer but fails to forward it to the broker within the time required by law. Who bears ultimate responsibility to the DRE for this violation?

    Practice of Real Estate and Disclosures

    • A. The buyer, for choosing to work with an unsupervised salesperson
    • B. The escrow holder, since all funds should have been routed directly through escrow
    • C. The employing broker, who is responsible for supervising trust fund handling by licensees
    • D. The salesperson exclusively, since the broker had no direct knowledge of the transaction
    Show answer

    C. The employing broker, who is responsible for supervising trust fund handling by licensees

    California law places ultimate responsibility for trust fund handling on the employing broker, who must supervise all licensees acting under their license, including proper and timely handling of trust funds received by salespersons.

  17. 17. Under the California Tenant Protection Act of 2019 (AB 1482), a landlord wants to raise the rent on a covered unit currently at $1,800 per month. The regional CPI increase is 3.5%. What is the maximum allowable new monthly rent?

    Practice of Real Estate and Disclosures

    • A. $1,953
    • B. $1,890
    • C. $2,000
    • D. $1,980
    Show answer

    A. $1,953

    AB 1482 caps annual rent increases at the lesser of 5% plus the local CPI, or 10% total. Here, 5% + 3.5% CPI = 8.5%. 8.5% of $1,800 = $153, so the maximum new rent is $1,800 + $153 = $1,953.

  18. 18. In a California deed of trust, which party holds bare legal title to the property solely for the purpose of reconveying it or conducting a foreclosure sale if the borrower defaults?

    Financing

    • A. Beneficiary
    • B. Trustee
    • C. Mortgagee
    • D. Trustor
    Show answer

    B. Trustee

    In a deed of trust, the trustor (borrower) conveys bare legal title to a neutral third party, the trustee, who holds it as security for the beneficiary (lender) and can reconvey it or sell it at foreclosure.

  19. 19. A Notice of Default is recorded against a borrower's property on March 1. Under California law, up until what point may the borrower reinstate the loan by curing the default and stopping the foreclosure sale?

    Financing

    • A. Up until 5 business days before the scheduled trustee's sale
    • B. Any time before the Notice of Default is recorded
    • C. There is no right to reinstate once a Notice of Default is recorded
    • D. Up until the day the Notice of Sale is recorded
    Show answer

    A. Up until 5 business days before the scheduled trustee's sale

    Under California Civil Code Section 2924c, a borrower has the right to reinstate the loan by curing the default, plus fees and costs, at any time up until 5 business days before the scheduled trustee's sale date.

  20. 20. A buyer and seller sign a purchase agreement that includes a liquidated damages clause limiting the seller's recovery, upon buyer default, to the buyer's deposit. If the deposit is $15,000 on a $600,000 purchase price, what is the liquidated damages amount as a percentage of the purchase price?

    Contracts

    • A. 5%
    • B. 1.5%
    • C. 3%
    • D. 2.5%
    Show answer

    D. 2.5%

    Divide the deposit by the purchase price: $15,000 ÷ $600,000 = 0.025, or 2.5%. California law caps liquidated damages on a residential purchase at 3% of the purchase price unless additional requirements are met, so this 2.5% clause is valid.

  21. 21. Under Civil Code Section 2079.17, when must the agency relationship(s) involved in a residential real property transaction be confirmed in writing?

    Laws of Agency and Fiduciary Duties

    • A. Within three days after close of escrow
    • B. Only when dual agency exists
    • C. Only if requested by either party after close of escrow
    • D. In the contract to purchase and sell, or in a separate writing, before or coincident with the execution of that contract
    Show answer

    D. In the contract to purchase and sell, or in a separate writing, before or coincident with the execution of that contract

    Civil Code Section 2079.17 requires that the agency relationship(s) be confirmed in writing in the contract itself or in a separate document, executed before or at the same time as the purchase contract, regardless of whether the transaction involves single or dual agency.

  22. 22. A broker's trust account records must be retained for inspection by the DRE for how many years after the closing of the transaction?

    Practice of Real Estate and Disclosures

    • A. 1 year
    • B. 3 years
    • C. 5 years
    • D. 7 years
    Show answer

    B. 3 years

    California law requires brokers to retain trust fund records, including transaction files, for a minimum of three years from the date of closing or the date of the listing if no transaction closes. This allows the DRE to audit trust account handling during that period.

  23. 23. A borrower obtains a $340,000 loan and the lender charges 1.75 discount points at closing. How much will the borrower pay in points?

    Financing

    • A. $3,400
    • B. $8,500
    • C. $1,750
    • D. $5,950
    Show answer

    D. $5,950

    One point equals 1% of the loan amount. 1.75% of $340,000 = 0.0175 × $340,000 = $5,950.

  24. 24. A listing agreement states the agency relationship exists 'until the property is sold, or the listing period expires, whichever occurs first.' Escrow closes and title transfers to the buyer. What effect does this have on the listing broker's agency relationship with the seller?

    Laws of Agency and Fiduciary Duties

    • A. The agency converts automatically into a property management agreement
    • B. The agency automatically terminates because its purpose has been fully accomplished
    • C. The agency continues indefinitely until formally terminated in writing
    • D. The agency continues until the broker is paid the full commission
    Show answer

    B. The agency automatically terminates because its purpose has been fully accomplished

    An agency relationship terminates by operation of law once its purpose has been fully accomplished, such as the successful close of escrow on the sale of the property. No further written termination is needed because the agency's objective — completing the sale — has been achieved.

  25. 25. A broker holding client trust funds from a buyer's earnest money deposit fails to place the funds into a neutral escrow or trust account within the time required by law, instead holding the uncashed check in the office file for two weeks. Which fiduciary duty has the broker most directly violated?

    Laws of Agency and Fiduciary Duties

    • A. The duty of full disclosure of material facts
    • B. The duty of confidentiality
    • C. The duty of loyalty
    • D. The duty to account for client funds
    Show answer

    D. The duty to account for client funds

    California law requires that trust funds be deposited into a neutral escrow depository or the broker's trust account within three business days of receipt. Failing to timely deposit and properly track client funds constitutes a breach of the fiduciary duty to account, which requires careful handling and recordkeeping of all money and property belonging to clients.

California Real Estate Salesperson flashcards

Tap a card to flip it. 212 flashcards in the full deck.

  • Trust Fund Deposit Deadline

    Flip card

    California brokers must deposit trust funds received on behalf of others into a trust account or neutral escrow within 3 business days of receipt.

    • 3 business day rule applies to broker trust accounts
    • Funds may be held uncashed only if buyer/seller instructs and seller is informed
    • Commingling trust funds with broker's personal funds is prohibited
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  • Secret Profit Doctrine

    Flip card

    An agent who makes an undisclosed profit at the principal's expense must disgorge that profit, as it violates the fiduciary duty of loyalty and full disclosure.

    • Applies when agent benefits secretly from a transaction
    • Principal can rescind the deal and recover the profit
    • Distinct from an agreed and disclosed commission
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  • Time is of the Essence

    Flip card

    A contract clause specifying that stated deadlines are material terms, requiring strict and timely performance; failure to meet them constitutes a material breach.

    • Makes deadlines legally binding and strictly enforced.
    • Missing such a deadline can allow the other party to cancel the contract.
    • Without this clause, courts may allow reasonable delays without automatic breach.
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  • Adverse Possession (California)

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    A method of acquiring title to another's land through open, hostile, continuous, exclusive possession for 5 years plus payment of all property taxes during that period.

    • 5-year statutory period in California
    • Requires payment of property taxes each year (unique to CA)
    • Possession must be open, notorious, hostile, and exclusive
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  • Advertising Broker Identification

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    All real estate advertising by a salesperson, regardless of medium, must identify the responsible broker to avoid misleading consumers about licensure status.

    • Applies to print, digital, and social media ads
    • Salesperson cannot advertise as if independently in business
    • DRE Regulation 2770.1 governs advertising disclosure requirements
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  • CEQA Categorical Exemption

    Flip card

    A class of projects identified by CEQA guidelines as having no significant effect on the environment, and therefore exempt from further environmental review.

    • Includes minor alterations to existing structures (Class 1)
    • No EIR or negative declaration required
    • Exemption doesn't apply if unusual circumstances create potential impact
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  • Discriminatory Advertising

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    Housing advertisements may not state a preference, limitation, or discrimination based on any protected class, including familial status.

    • Ads are violations on their face, no injured party needed
    • Protected classes include familial status, race, religion, disability, etc.
    • Applies to print, online, and social media advertising
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  • Grant Deed Implied Warranties

    Flip card

    A grant deed automatically implies that the grantor has not already conveyed the property to another and that it is free of grantor-created encumbrances not disclosed.

    • Grant deed is the most commonly used deed in California
    • Implied warranties exist even without express language
    • Does not guarantee against encumbrances created by prior owners
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  • Procuring Cause Dispute

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    A disagreement between cooperating brokers over which one caused the ultimate sale, resolved through arbitration rather than by the DRE.

    • DRE does not resolve commission disputes
    • MLS/Realtor association arbitration is the common venue
    • Based on unbroken chain of events leading to the sale
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  • Agent Visual Inspection Duty

    Flip card

    Under Civil Code 2079, a listing agent must conduct a reasonably competent and diligent visual inspection of reasonably accessible areas of a property and disclose material facts discovered.

    • Applies to residential 1-4 unit properties
    • Covers areas reasonably and normally accessible, not areas requiring special access
    • Agent must disclose material defects discovered during inspection
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  • Ownership in Severalty

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    Sole ownership of real property by one individual or entity, with no co-owners.

    • Title is 'severed' from all other parties
    • Owner has complete control without co-owner consent
    • Can be an individual or a single legal entity like a corporation
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  • Housing for Older Persons Act (HOPA) Exemption

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    HOPA allows senior housing communities to be exempt from familial status discrimination claims if they meet specific occupancy percentage and policy requirements.

    • 55+ communities: 80% of units must have one occupant 55 or older, plus published policies
    • 62+ communities: 100% of units must be occupied by persons 62 or older
    • Simply calling a property 'adults only' does not meet the exemption and violates fair housing law
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  • Agency Disclosure Timing

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    In California, agency relationships must be disclosed to a seller before the listing agreement is signed and to a buyer before signing the purchase agreement, per Civil Code 2079.14.

    • Applies to 1-4 unit residential transactions
    • Seller must receive disclosure before signing listing agreement
    • Buyer must receive disclosure before signing offer if not already given
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  • Total Accrued Depreciation

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    The sum of all forms of depreciation (physical, functional, and external) subtracted from reproduction/replacement cost new to reach depreciated value.

    • Three types: physical, functional, external
    • Total depreciation = sum of all three types
    • Percentage = Total depreciation ÷ Cost new
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  • Conditional Use Permit (CUP)

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    A discretionary approval allowing a specific use in a zone where it is conditionally permitted, subject to conditions addressing community impacts.

    • Used for uses like hospitals, churches, or daycare centers in restrictive zones
    • Conditions may address traffic, noise, hours of operation
    • Different from a variance, which addresses physical dimensional standards
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  • Broker Supervisory Liability for Trust Funds

    Flip card

    Employing brokers are ultimately responsible to the DRE for the proper and timely handling of trust funds received by their salespersons.

    • Brokers must supervise all trust fund handling activities of their agents
    • Salesperson violations can result in disciplinary action against the broker's license
    • Trust funds received by a salesperson must reach the broker within required timeframes
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  • AB 1482 Rent Cap Calculation

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    California's statewide rent cap limits annual increases to the lesser of 5% plus local CPI or 10% total, for covered rental units.

    • Applies to most multifamily units older than 15 years, with exceptions
    • Formula: increase = lesser of (5% + CPI) or 10%
    • Some properties (single-family homes owned by individuals, new construction) may be exempt
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  • Deed of Trust Parties

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    A deed of trust involves three parties: the trustor (borrower), the trustee (neutral title holder), and the beneficiary (lender).

    • Trustor = borrower who signs the note and deed of trust
    • Trustee = holds bare legal title for security purposes
    • Beneficiary = lender who receives loan payments
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  • Right of Reinstatement

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    California borrowers may cure a default and reinstate their loan up until 5 business days before the scheduled trustee's sale, per Civil Code 2924c.

    • Reinstatement requires paying missed payments plus fees and costs
    • Cutoff is 5 business days before the trustee's sale date
    • Distinct from the right of redemption, which may apply after judicial foreclosure
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  • Liquidated Damages Cap

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    California limits liquidated damages in residential purchase contracts to a maximum of 3% of the purchase price unless the buyer separately initials a higher amount meeting specific statutory conditions.

    • Cap applies to residential property of one to four units intended for buyer occupancy
    • Amount above 3% requires separate proof of actual damages
    • Formula: deposit ÷ purchase price = percentage
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  • Agency Confirmation Requirement (2079.17)

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    California law requires written confirmation of the agency relationship(s) in the purchase contract or a separate writing, executed at or before the contract's signing.

    • Applies to all residential transactions, not just dual agency.
    • Confirmation must be in or accompanying the purchase contract.
    • Distinct from the earlier listing-side agency disclosure requirement under 2079.14.
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  • Trust Fund Record Retention

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    Brokers must keep trust fund records and related transaction files for three years for DRE audit purposes.

    • Three-year retention period applies from close of escrow or termination of listing
    • Applies to trust account ledgers, bank statements, and transaction files
    • DRE audits can occur without notice during this period
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  • Discount Points

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    A point equals 1% of the loan amount, paid upfront to the lender, often to lower the loan's interest rate.

    • 1 point = 1% of loan amount
    • Points are calculated on the loan amount, not sale price
    • Paying points can lower the interest rate ('buying down' the rate)
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  • Termination by Fulfillment of Purpose

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    An agency automatically ends once its stated objective has been fully accomplished, such as the successful completion of a sale.

    • No formal written termination is required.
    • Applies once escrow closes/title transfers.
    • Distinct from termination by expiration, death, or revocation.
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