CFA Level IFinancial Statement AnalysisMedium

A machine costs $100,000, has a $10,000 estimated salvage value, and a 5-year useful life. Using the double-declining-balance method, what is the depreciation expense in Year 2?

  1. A$20,000
  2. B$16,000
  3. C$40,000
  4. D$24,000
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D. $24,000

DDB rate = 2/5 = 40%. Year 1 depreciation = 100,000 × 40% = $40,000, leaving a book value of $60,000. Year 2 depreciation = 60,000 × 40% = $24,000. Salvage value is ignored until it would reduce book value below it.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Incorrect — this uses straight-line-like logic, not DDB.
  • B. Incorrect — this understates the rate applied to beginning book value.
  • C. Incorrect — this is the Year 1 depreciation, not Year 2.

Double-Declining-Balance Depreciation

An accelerated depreciation method that applies a constant rate (double the straight-line rate) to the declining book value each year, ignoring salvage value until the final years.

  • Rate = 2 × (1/useful life)
  • Applied to beginning-of-year book value, not depreciable base
  • Salvage value only matters as a floor near the end of useful life

Memory trick: Double the rate, shrink the base each year

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