FAA Instrument Rating Airplane (IRA)

A. The system automatically reverts to LNAV minima; the pilot must fly to the LNAV MDA rather than the LPV DA

When WAAS signal augmentation is lost but basic GPS RAIM remains, the receiver automatically reverts to a lower level of service, typically LNAV, which provides lateral guidance only. The pilot must then use the LNAV MDA rather than continuing with vertical (LPV) guidance to a DA.

B. Inherent gyroscopic precession caused by internal friction and the earth's rotation

Heading indicators are subject to real precession caused by friction within the gimbals and bearings, as well as the earth's rotation, which is why pilots must periodically realign the heading indicator with the magnetic compass, typically every 15 minutes.

B. The altimeter will indicate higher than the actual altitude

Because cockpit static pressure is lower than the true outside static pressure, the altimeter interprets this lower pressure as a higher altitude, so it will indicate an altitude higher than actual when using the alternate static source in most unpressurized airplanes.

D. As an urgent PIREP (UUA), since severe turbulence is a criterion requiring urgent handling

Severe turbulence is one of the specific criteria that requires a PIREP to be classified as urgent (UUA) rather than routine (UA). Urgent PIREPs are given priority handling by ATC and Flight Service because they involve hazards to flight safety that other pilots need immediately.

B. 800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility

Standard alternate minimums are 600-2 for airports with a precision approach and 800-2 for airports with only a nonprecision approach. Since this airport has only a nonprecision approach, 800-2 applies.

A. Yes, because the reading is within 4° of 0°

14 CFR 91.171 allows a maximum error of ±4° for a VOT check when the CDI is centered with a FROM flag showing 0° (or a TO flag showing 180°). A reading of 004° is exactly at, but within, the allowable 4° tolerance, so the check is satisfactory.

A. An alternate is required only if the destination has no instrument approach procedure

Even if the 1-2-3 rule ceiling/visibility criteria are met (2,000 ft ceiling and 3 SM visibility from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA), an alternate must still be filed if the destination airport does not have an approved instrument approach procedure, since the pilot could not legally shoot an approach there. In this scenario the forecast (2,500-4) meets the 1-2-3 threshold, so option D describing failure of that rule doesn't apply; the underlying trigger requiring an alternate regardless is lack of an approach procedure.

C. A discrepancy exists between the primary and standby attitude systems beyond a set threshold; cross-check backup instruments to identify the failed source

Comparator monitors in glass cockpit systems continuously compare outputs from independent attitude sources (e.g., primary AHRS and standby instruments). An 'ATT MISCOMPARE' or similar caution means the values disagree beyond an allowable tolerance, and the pilot must cross-check the standby attitude indicator and other cues to determine which system is providing valid data.

B. In time to reach 7,000 feet by the point where the higher MEA segment begins

A pilot must climb early enough to reach the higher MEA by the point along the route where that MEA becomes effective, ensuring terrain and obstacle clearance is maintained throughout the transition, per 91.177 and 91.185(c)(2) guidance.

D. The pilot must have the airport or the preceding aircraft to be followed in sight and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions

A visual approach clearance requires the pilot to have either the airport or the preceding aircraft to follow in sight, with the ability to proceed to the airport and land visually; the IFR flight plan remains active until landing, and there is no Part 121-only restriction.

A. The area defined by the circling approach radius appropriate to the airplane's approach category, based on the charted circling MDA

Circling approach protected areas vary by approach category because faster, heavier aircraft require larger turning radii. The radius is based on the aircraft's approach category and is published (or standardized) in relation to the circling MDA; remaining within this area is essential to guarantee the charted obstacle clearance.

A. Sufficient water vapor, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting mechanism

Thunderstorms require three basic ingredients: adequate moisture (water vapor) to form clouds and precipitation, an unstable atmosphere (steep lapse rate) to sustain vertical development, and a lifting mechanism such as a front, convergence, or heating to initiate the updraft.

D. A Cessna 182 at 8,000 feet reported moderate turbulence and light rime icing 35 NM on the 090 radial from Denver VOR at 1435Z

Decoding: DEN UA = routine PIREP near Denver; /OV DEN090035 = location 35 NM on the 090° radial from DEN VOR; /TM1435 = time 1435Z; /FL080 = flight level 8,000 feet; /TP C182 = aircraft type Cessna 182; /TB MOD = moderate turbulence; /RM ICE LGT RIME = remarks noting light rime icing.

B. 45 gallons

91.167 requires fuel to fly to the destination, then to the alternate, then 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. Total time = 2.5 hr + 0.5 hr + 0.75 hr = 3.75 hr. At 12 GPH, 3.75 × 12 = 45 gallons.

A. PAVE checklist

The PAVE checklist divides flight risk into four categories: Pilot (proficiency, currency, health), Aircraft (equipment, performance, limitations), enVironment (weather, terrain, airspace, airport conditions), and External pressures (get-there-itis, passenger expectations, schedules). This structured framework helps pilots systematically assess overall flight risk before departure.

A. Leave the clearance limit at 1930Z and proceed via the route to the destination as filed

When the clearance limit is not the airport of intended landing, 91.185(c)(1) requires the pilot to leave the clearance limit at the EFC time (if one was received) and proceed to fly the route to the destination as cleared/filed. Here, the pilot should depart the fix at 1930Z.

D. Complete an instrument proficiency check (IPC) with an authorized instructor or examiner

Under 14 CFR 61.57(d), if a pilot fails to meet instrument experience requirements for more than 6 calendar months (i.e., beyond the initial 6-month currency period plus the following 6-month grace period), the pilot must pass an instrument proficiency check (IPC) administered by an authorized instructor, examiner, or FAA inspector before acting as PIC under IFR. Since 8 months have elapsed, the pilot is past the point where simply logging approaches with a safety pilot restores currency; an IPC is now required.

D. 266°

The compass correction card directly indicates the compass heading to steer in order to achieve the desired magnetic heading; per the card, to fly a magnetic heading of 270°, the pilot must steer a compass heading of 266°.

B. To reduce pilot/controller workload by providing a standardized route and altitude transition from the en route structure to the terminal area

STARs are published to simplify clearance delivery and reduce communication by providing a preplanned route and altitude/speed profile from the en route environment into the terminal area, prior to being cleared for an approach.

C. Fly the published approach procedure from the current position via the appropriate transition, without needing to fly a course reversal since none is required from that transition

A clearance for the approach authorizes the pilot to fly the published procedure as charted, using whichever transition or feeder route is appropriate to the pilot's position. If the specific transition being flown does not require a procedure turn (NoPT), the pilot proceeds directly to the FAF without a course reversal.

A. 000°

When turning through North, the compass lags, so the pilot must lead the rollout by an amount approximately equal to the latitude (40°). Subtracting 40° from the desired heading of 040° gives 000°, so the pilot should begin rollout when the indicated heading passes through North; the compass will then settle on 040° as the turn error dissipates.

A. 4,000 feet AGL

The temperature/dew point spread rule states that cloud base height (AGL) can be approximated by dividing the spread by 2.5°C per 1,000 feet. Here, the spread is 20°C − 10°C = 10°C, so 10 ÷ 2.5 = 4, giving an estimated cloud base of 4,000 feet AGL.

C. As close as possible to the estimated time of arrival (ETA) at the clearance limit as calculated from the filed or amended flight plan

Under 14 CFR 91.185(c)(3), if no EFC time has been received, the pilot must leave the clearance limit as close as possible to the ETA calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) flight plan. This ensures the pilot proceeds to the approach at a predictable time that ATC can anticipate for separation purposes.

D. Parallel entry

The three holding entry sectors are divided relative to the inbound course: the sector spanning 70° on the non-holding side of the extended inbound course (adjacent to the outbound leg) corresponds to a parallel entry, in which the pilot flies parallel to the inbound course on the non-holding side before turning to intercept the inbound course.

D. The airport cannot be used as an alternate under any weather conditions

'Alternate minimums NA' (Not Authorized) means the procedure cannot be used to qualify the airport as an alternate at all, regardless of forecast weather conditions, typically due to lack of weather reporting or facility limitations required for alternate use.