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FAA Instrument Rating Airplane (IRA) practice questions

239 free questions with answers and explanations.

Practice test
  1. 101.A pilot preparing to file an IFR flight plan between two busy terminal areas wants to select a route that ATC is most likely to approve without amendment, reducing the chance of reroutes or delays. Which publication should the pilot consult first?IFR Procedures and Charts
  2. 102.A pilot notices that a developing cumulonimbus cloud has a well-defined anvil top that is spreading out horizontally at high altitude. What does this feature indicate about the thunderstorm and the associated hazard?Weather and Weather Services
  3. 103.A pilot conducts a dual VOR receiver check by tuning both navigation receivers to the same VOR station and radial. Receiver 1 indicates the aircraft is on the 087° radial, and Receiver 2 indicates 093°. Per 14 CFR 91.171, does this system meet the requirement for IFR flight?Navigation Systems
  4. 104.A flight instructor explains that magnetic compass turning error and acceleration/deceleration error share a common underlying cause. What is that cause?Flight Instruments and Systems
  5. 105.A flight instructor explains that a gyroscope resists any force that attempts to change the plane in which the rotor is spinning, causing it to maintain a fixed orientation in space unless acted upon by an outside force. Which gyroscopic property is being described?Flight Instruments and Systems
  6. 106.A pilot on a rapid takeoff roll experiences a strong sensation that the nose is pitching up excessively, even though the airplane is actually in a normal climb attitude. Trusting this sensation, the pilot pushes the yoke forward, risking controlled flight into terrain. Which illusion caused this sensation?Aeromedical and ADM
  7. 107.An instrument-rated pilot notices deteriorating weather ahead and unexpectedly reduced fuel reserves during a night IFR flight. Using the DECIDE decision-making model, after detecting the change and estimating the need for action, which step comes next in the six-step process?Aeromedical and ADM
  8. 108.A pilot is holding at a VOR fix at 9,000 feet MSL in a standard, non-DME holding pattern. According to standard holding pattern criteria, what is the maximum outbound leg time the pilot should fly?IFR Procedures and Charts
  9. 109.During the takeoff roll, a pilot glances at the attitude indicator just before rotation and notices it already displays a slight nose-up pitch attitude, even though the airplane is still on the runway. What is the most likely explanation for this indication?Flight Instruments and Systems
  10. 110.During a descent for landing with the engine at reduced power on a day with an outside air temperature of 65°F and visible moisture/high humidity, a pilot in a carbureted airplane should be most alert for which hazard?Weather and Weather Services
  11. 111.A pilot's forecast weather for the ETA satisfies the 1-2-3 rule (ceiling 3,000 feet, visibility 5 statute miles), so an alternate is not required under 14 CFR 91.169. The pilot nonetheless voluntarily lists an alternate airport on the IFR flight plan for extra safety margin. Under 14 CFR 91.167, is the pilot required to carry enough fuel to fly to that voluntarily listed alternate?Regulations and Currency
  12. 112.A pilot is cleared for a Precision Approach Radar (PAR) approach to a military-shared airfield. What distinguishes this approach from an Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR) approach at the same facility?IFR Procedures and Charts
  13. 113.A pilot receives a surface report of ice pellets (PL) at their destination. What does this observation most strongly suggest about conditions aloft?Weather and Weather Services
  14. 114.Before departing on a cross-country IFR flight, a pilot pauses to honestly evaluate personal factors including recent alcohol use, medication, stress level, and fatigue. Which personal checklist is the pilot using?Aeromedical and ADM
  15. 115.A pilot experiences a two-way radio communication failure while operating IFR in IMC. ATC had not issued a clearance beyond a fix, and the pilot had not received an expect-further-clearance time. According to 14 CFR 91.185, what altitude should the pilot fly for a route segment after passing that fix?Regulations and Currency
  16. 116.A technician is troubleshooting a turn coordinator that displays roll and yaw information differently than a standard turn-and-slip indicator. Which design feature explains why the turn coordinator senses both roll rate and yaw rate?Flight Instruments and Systems
  17. 117.During a night IFR flight, a pilot becomes fixated on the analysis of a weather radar display for several minutes and fails to notice the airplane has drifted 15 degrees off the assigned heading. This scenario is a classic example of a breakdown in which resource management skill?Aeromedical and ADM
  18. 118.A pilot is equipping a single-engine piston airplane for IFR flight and reviews 14 CFR 91.205(d) to identify equipment required for IFR operations beyond what is already required for day VFR flight. Which instrument must be added?Regulations and Currency
  19. 119.An RNAV (GPS) approach chart depicts a feeder route from an en route fix to the Initial Approach Fix (IAF), with 'NoPT' annotated along that route. What does this annotation instruct the pilot to do upon reaching the IAF?IFR Procedures and Charts
  20. 120.A pilot receives the following IFR clearance before departure: 'Cleared to Lakeview Airport as filed, maintain 4,000, expect 8,000 ten minutes after departure, departure frequency 124.3, squawk 4521, clearance void if not off by 1450, if not off by 1450 advise Approach no later than 1500 of intentions.' The pilot is unable to depart by 1450. What must the pilot do?IFR Procedures and Charts
  21. 121.An approach chart's alternate minimums section contains a triangle with an 'A' inside it (nonstandard alternate minimums symbol), rather than the standard NA symbol for alternate use. What must a pilot do when planning to use this airport as an alternate?IFR Procedures and Charts
  22. 122.A pilot relies on a vacuum-driven heading indicator that has zero internal friction and a mechanically perfect gyro. Even so, the pilot must reset the heading indicator to the magnetic compass roughly every 15 minutes. What causes this necessary correction?Flight Instruments and Systems
  23. 123.A pilot flying with a vacuum-driven attitude indicator notices the vacuum gauge has dropped to zero due to a pump failure. What should the pilot expect regarding the attitude indicator's behavior?Flight Instruments and Systems
  24. 124.A pilot's aircraft is equipped only with VOR navigation (no DME and no approved RNAV system) and plans an IFR flight at FL250. According to 14 CFR 91.205(f), what additional equipment must the aircraft have?Regulations and Currency
  25. 125.An aircraft's DME indicates a slant-range distance of 5.0 NM from a VOR/DME station while the aircraft is flying at 30,000 feet MSL directly over terrain at the station's elevation (sea level). What is the approximate actual horizontal (ground) distance from the station?Navigation Systems
  26. 126.While preflight planning an IFR cross-country flight, a pilot reviews the destination's expected weather trends, personal currency and rest, passenger needs, and finally checks the planned autopilot and GPS approach settings for the arrival. The review of the autopilot and GPS settings corresponds to which category of the 5P risk management model?Aeromedical and ADM
  27. 127.During a preflight briefing, a pilot is told the freezing level is forecast at 4,000 feet MSL along the route, with tops of stratiform clouds at 8,000 feet MSL. The planned cruise altitude is 6,000 feet MSL. Which statement best describes the icing risk assessment for this flight?Weather and Weather Services
  28. 128.During early morning hours, a pilot observes wisps of fog rising from a lake surface into much colder air above, resembling smoke. What condition produces this type of fog, and what hazard is most associated with it?Weather and Weather Services
  29. 129.An en route low-altitude chart shows a Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA) of 9,000 feet MSL for eastbound traffic at a VOR, while the MEA on the airway segment just prior to that fix is 6,000 feet MSL. A pilot flying eastbound is at 6,000 feet approaching the fix. What altitude must the pilot reach before crossing the fix?IFR Procedures and Charts
  30. 130.A pilot flying through a layer of stratiform clouds at -8°C notices ice forming on the wing leading edge that appears rough, milky white, and opaque. This ice most likely formed due to which process?Weather and Weather Services
  31. 131.A pilot receives a preflight briefing that includes an AIRMET Sierra for a route crossing mountainous terrain. What weather conditions does this AIRMET most likely describe?Weather and Weather Services
  32. 132.A pilot plans an IFR flight that will pass through Class B airspace surrounding a major terminal. Beyond the instruments required by 14 CFR 91.205(d), what additional equipment must the aircraft have installed and operating per 14 CFR 91.215?Regulations and Currency
  33. 133.A pilot has two glasses of wine with dinner ending at 9:00 p.m. and plans to depart on an IFR flight at 4:00 a.m. the next day, roughly 7 hours later. A breathalyzer at the airport shows a blood alcohol level of 0.02. According to 14 CFR 91.17, may this pilot legally act as pilot in command?Aeromedical and ADM
  34. 134.A pilot receives an unexpected reroute from ATC shortly before top of descent. Feeling rushed, the pilot immediately reprograms the FMS without cross-checking the new routing against the approach plate, and continues the descent. This behavior is most representative of which hazardous attitude?Aeromedical and ADM
  35. 135.An aircraft's dual VOR receivers are checked against each other on the ground per 14 CFR 91.171. What is the maximum allowable difference in indicated bearing between the two receivers for the check to be considered satisfactory?Regulations and Currency
  36. 136.A pilot is selecting an alternate airport for an IFR flight plan. The only published instrument approach procedure at the intended alternate is an RNAV (GPS) approach, and the aircraft is equipped with a non-WAAS IFR-approved GPS receiver. According to FAA guidance, what limitation applies to using this airport as an alternate?Regulations and Currency
  37. 137.A pilot flying an ILS approach engages the autopilot in HDG mode to intercept the localizer course, then arms APR (approach) mode before reaching the course. What will the autopilot do as the aircraft nears the localizer centerline?Flight Instruments and Systems
  38. 138.A pilot experiences a two-way radio communication failure while flying in IMC on an airway with an MEA of 6,000 feet. Prior to the failure, ATC had assigned 5,000 feet, and the pilot's clearance included 'expect 7,000 feet 10 minutes after departure' for a later segment. Per 14 CFR 91.185, what altitude should the pilot fly for this segment after losing communications?IFR Procedures and Charts
  39. 139.A pilot wishes to request a contact approach in lieu of flying the published instrument approach. Which condition must be satisfied for ATC to approve this request?IFR Procedures and Charts
  40. 140.A pilot is planning a flight departing at 0400Z on the 13th. The TAF includes: FM130200 22015G25KT 3SM TSRA BKN015CB FM130600 25008KT P6SM SCT030. What conditions should the pilot expect at the departure time?Weather and Weather Services
  41. 141.An airway intersection is defined using a radial from an off-course VOR. The chart lists a Minimum Reception Altitude (MRA) of 5,500 feet MSL at that intersection, while the MEA for the airway segment is 4,000 feet MSL. If a pilot flies the segment at 4,000 feet, what is the operational significance of the MRA?IFR Procedures and Charts
  42. 142.An airplane operating at 35°S latitude is using only the magnetic compass (vacuum system failed) and begins a right turn from a heading of 300° through North to a heading of 030°. How should the pilot use the compass indication to roll out on the correct heading?Flight Instruments and Systems
  43. 143.A pilot flying through a cloud with large supercooled water droplets at an OAT of -4°C is most likely to accumulate which type of structural ice?Weather and Weather Services
  44. 144.A pilot's estimated time of arrival (ETA) at the destination is 1800Z. The terminal forecast shows a broken ceiling of 1,800 feet and 4 statute miles visibility for the period 1700Z–1900Z. Applying the 1-2-3 rule found in 14 CFR 91.169, is an alternate airport required for this flight?Regulations and Currency
  45. 145.A pilot is flying direct via GPS on an off-airway route over mountainous terrain with no MEA, MOCA, or other minimum altitude established for the route. The highest obstacle within 4 nautical miles of the course is 8,150 feet MSL. Per 14 CFR 91.177, what is the minimum IFR altitude the pilot may fly?IFR Procedures and Charts
  46. 146.A pilot files an IFR flight plan via V16 IRENE V283 to Springfield Municipal at 6,000 feet. Before departure, ATC transmits: 'Cessna 4AB, cleared to Springfield Municipal as filed, climb and maintain 4,000, expect 6,000 ten minutes after departure, departure frequency 124.7, squawk 4521.' What does 'cleared as filed' authorize?IFR Procedures and Charts
  47. 147.A pilot is planning an instrument approach in a Category A aircraft based on approach speed. Which factor determines the correct approach category to use for minimums?IFR Procedures and Charts
  48. 148.A pilot is planning to route around an area of thunderstorm activity depicted on radar. According to standard recommendations for thunderstorm avoidance, what minimum lateral clearance should be maintained from a thunderstorm cell that appears to be building rapidly, and from the top of a well-developed storm when overflying it if possible?Weather and Weather Services
  49. 149.A pilot is cleared for a Charted Visual Flight Procedure (CVFP) to the destination airport. Which condition must be met for ATC to issue this clearance?IFR Procedures and Charts
  50. 150.An Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) requires a climb gradient of 290 feet per nautical mile to 5,000 feet MSL. The pilot plans to fly the departure at a groundspeed of 140 knots. What minimum rate of climb, in feet per minute, must the pilot maintain to comply with this requirement?IFR Procedures and Charts