NREMT Paramedic Cognitive ExamCardiology & ResuscitationEasy

A 45-year-old male presents with sudden onset of severe palpitations. He denies chest pain or shortness of breath. His vital signs are BP 128/84 mmHg, HR 180 bpm, RR 16 bpm, SpO2 98%. The ECG shows a regular, narrow-complex tachycardia. He is alert and oriented with no signs of hypoperfusion. What is the MOST appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

  1. AAdenosine 6 mg rapid IV push
  2. BSynchronized cardioversion
  3. CAmiodarone 150 mg IV over 10 minutes
  4. DPerform vagal maneuvers
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D. Perform vagal maneuvers

For stable patients with regular, narrow-complex tachycardia, the initial treatment step is to attempt vagal maneuvers. These non-invasive techniques can often terminate supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) by increasing vagal tone.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Adenosine is the next step if vagal maneuvers are unsuccessful, but not the initial intervention.
  • B. Synchronized cardioversion is reserved for unstable tachycardias.
  • C. Amiodarone is typically used for refractory ventricular or some supraventricular tachycardias, not as a first-line for stable narrow-complex tachycardia.

Stable Narrow-Complex Tachycardia Initial Treatment

For a stable patient with regular, narrow-complex tachycardia, the initial intervention should be vagal maneuvers to attempt to terminate the dysrhythmia.

  • Patient must be stable (no signs of shock, acute altered mental status, ongoing ischemic chest discomfort, acute heart failure).
  • ECG must show regular, narrow-complex rhythm.
  • Vagal maneuvers (e.g., Valsalva, carotid sinus massage) increase vagal tone to slow heart rate.

Memory trick: Start with Vagal, then Zap with Meds!

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