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FAA Sport Pilot Airplane (SPA)

Practice bank
200 Qs
Real exam
40 Qs
Time limit
120 min
Passing
70%

Exam blueprint

Regulations
25%
Airspace and Navigation
25%
Weather
20%
Aircraft Performance and Systems
15%
Human Factors and ADM
15%

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Untimed · instant feedback · 4 practice tests of 90 questions

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FAA Sport Pilot Airplane (SPA) practice test questions

Sample questions from the 200-question bank, with answers and explanations.

All questions
  1. 1. An aircraft departs on a cross-country flight with a true airspeed of 105 knots. A 15-knot headwind reduces the groundspeed to 90 knots. If the total distance to the destination is 180 nautical miles, how long will the flight take?

    Airspace and Navigation

    • A. 2 hours 15 minutes
    • B. 1 hour 45 minutes
    • C. 2 hours 0 minutes
    • D. 1 hour 30 minutes
    Show answer

    C. 2 hours 0 minutes

    Time en route = Distance ÷ Groundspeed = 180 NM ÷ 90 knots = 2.0 hours. Since the headwind reduces the groundspeed to 90 knots (not the 105-knot true airspeed), the correct groundspeed must be used for the time calculation, giving exactly 2 hours 0 minutes.

  2. 2. A weather briefer advises that a non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms is developing ahead of an approaching cold front and is expected to produce severe weather. What is this line of thunderstorms called?

    Weather

    • A. A stationary front
    • B. A squall line
    • C. An occluded front
    • D. A dry line
    Show answer

    B. A squall line

    A squall line is a narrow, non-frontal band of active thunderstorms that often forms ahead of a fast-moving cold front and can produce severe turbulence, hail, and damaging winds, sometimes more severe than the front itself.

  3. 3. A pilot is flying a 165 nautical mile leg. After 30 minutes of flight, GPS shows 80 nautical miles remaining to the destination. Based on the groundspeed calculated from the first 30 minutes, how much additional time is needed to complete the leg?

    Airspace and Navigation

    • A. 28 minutes
    • B. 36 minutes
    • C. 32 minutes
    • D. 24 minutes
    Show answer

    A. 28 minutes

    Distance covered in 30 minutes = 165 − 80 = 85 NM, giving a groundspeed of 85 NM ÷ 0.5 hr = 170 knots. Time for remaining 80 NM = 80/170 hr = 0.4706 hr ≈ 28 minutes.

  4. 4. A pilot planning a flight has passengers who are eager to reach a family event on time. Even though weather conditions are marginal, the pilot feels compelled to depart to avoid disappointing them. This self-induced psychological pressure to complete a flight as planned is commonly referred to as which of the following?

    Human Factors and ADM

    • A. Normalization of deviance
    • B. Get-there-itis
    • C. Anti-authority attitude
    • D. Peer pressure
    Show answer

    B. Get-there-itis

    'Get-there-itis' describes a pilot's fixation on reaching the destination as planned, often leading to poor risk decisions such as departing into marginal weather. It is a form of self-induced pressure rather than pressure imposed by others.

  5. 5. A pilot wants to transit through Class B airspace surrounding a major airport. The pilot contacts approach control and reports the request. Which response from ATC would allow the pilot to legally enter the Class B airspace?

    Airspace and Navigation

    • A. 'Cessna 456CD, cleared into the Class Bravo airspace'
    • B. 'Cessna 456CD, radar contact'
    • C. 'Cessna 456CD, squawk 0451'
    • D. 'Cessna 456CD, remain clear of Bravo airspace'
    Show answer

    A. 'Cessna 456CD, cleared into the Class Bravo airspace'

    14 CFR 91.131 requires that an aircraft receive an explicit ATC clearance before entering Class B airspace. Only a specific statement authorizing entry, such as 'cleared into the Class Bravo airspace' or 'cleared to enter the Class Bravo,' satisfies this requirement; radar contact and squawk code assignment alone do not.

  6. 6. During flight, a pilot suspects the static port is blocked and opens the alternate static source, which is vented inside the unpressurized cabin. Cabin pressure in flight is normally slightly lower than the outside static pressure. As a result, compared to the actual values, the altimeter will now indicate an altitude that is

    Aircraft Performance and Systems

    • A. unaffected, since only airspeed changes
    • B. higher than actual altitude
    • C. identical to actual altitude
    • D. lower than actual altitude
    Show answer

    B. higher than actual altitude

    Cabin air pressure is typically lower than outside static pressure due to airflow effects, so feeding this lower pressure to the altimeter causes it to interpret the lower pressure as a higher altitude. The airplane will therefore fly slightly lower than the altimeter indicates.

  7. 7. Under conditions of the International Standard Atmosphere, temperature decreases by approximately how much for every 1,000 feet of altitude gain (up to the tropopause)?

    Weather

    • A. 4°C
    • B. 3°C
    • C. 1°C
    • D. 2°C
    Show answer

    D. 2°C

    The standard lapse rate is 2°C (3.5°F) per 1,000 feet of altitude increase, used as the baseline for density altitude and performance calculations.

  8. 8. A pilot is evaluating an airplane for sport pilot operations. To qualify as a light-sport airplane (landplane configuration), the aircraft's maximum certificated takeoff weight may not exceed

    Regulations

    • A. 2,000 pounds
    • B. 1,430 pounds
    • C. 1,320 pounds
    • D. 1,500 pounds
    Show answer

    C. 1,320 pounds

    14 CFR 1.1 defines a light-sport aircraft (other than a seaplane) as having a maximum gross takeoff weight of 1,320 pounds. Seaplanes are allowed a higher weight of 1,430 pounds due to the added weight of floats.

  9. 9. During a turn in flight, a pilot's inner ear continues to sense a bank after the aircraft has actually returned to level flight, causing the pilot to feel an unwarranted urge to bank further. This vestibular illusion is known as:

    Human Factors and ADM

    • A. Somatogravic illusion
    • B. The leans
    • C. Coriolis illusion
    • D. Graveyard spiral
    Show answer

    B. The leans

    The leans occur when a pilot fails to perceive a bank or its correction due to a slow, gradual entry, causing a false sensation that the aircraft is still turning when it is actually level, prompting an incorrect corrective bank.

  10. 10. An applicant preparing to take the FAA sport pilot airplane knowledge test must first obtain an endorsement. Under 14 CFR 61.35(a)(1), who is authorized to provide this endorsement, and what must it certify?

    Regulations

    • A. Any certificated pilot, certifying the applicant has read the appropriate FAA handbook
    • B. An authorized flight instructor, certifying the applicant received the required ground training or completed a home-study course and is prepared for the test
    • C. A designated pilot examiner, certifying the applicant passed a practice test
    • D. The FAA Flight Standards District Office, certifying the applicant's application has been reviewed
    Show answer

    B. An authorized flight instructor, certifying the applicant received the required ground training or completed a home-study course and is prepared for the test

    14 CFR 61.35(a)(1) requires that an applicant for a knowledge test present, as applicable, an endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that the applicant has received the required ground instruction or has completed an appropriate home-study course and is prepared for the knowledge test.

  11. 11. A sport pilot is planning a VFR cross-country flight and notices a temporary flight restriction (TFR) has recently been established near the destination airport due to wildfire suppression activity. What is the pilot's regulatory obligation regarding this information under 14 CFR 91.103?

    Regulations

    • A. The pilot must become familiar with all available information concerning the flight, including NOTAMs and TFRs
    • B. TFR compliance is optional for sport pilots operating light-sport aircraft
    • C. No action is required since the flight is VFR and TFRs only apply to IFR traffic
    • D. The pilot only needs to check TFRs if the flight exceeds 100 nautical miles
    Show answer

    A. The pilot must become familiar with all available information concerning the flight, including NOTAMs and TFRs

    14 CFR 91.103 requires every pilot in command to become familiar with all available information concerning that flight, which includes checking NOTAMs and TFRs regardless of whether the flight is IFR or VFR, or the distance flown.

  12. 12. A pilot is planning a flight under VFR that will not be conducted in the vicinity of an airport. Per 14 CFR 91.103, the pilot's preflight action must include, among other things,

    Regulations

    • A. filing a VFR flight plan with Flight Service
    • B. a personal weight and balance calculation certified by a mechanic
    • C. a review of the aircraft's maintenance logbooks for the past 12 months
    • D. available weather reports and forecasts, and alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed as planned
    Show answer

    D. available weather reports and forecasts, and alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed as planned

    14 CFR 91.103 requires each pilot in command, before beginning a flight, to become familiar with all available information concerning that flight, including weather reports/forecasts and alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed as planned, for flights not in the vicinity of an airport.

  13. 13. A sport pilot plans to operate in Class G airspace at an airport pattern altitude of 700 feet AGL during the day, more than 1,200 feet below the surrounding terrain is not a factor. What are the minimum visibility and cloud clearance requirements for this operation?

    Weather

    • A. 3 statute miles visibility and clear of clouds
    • B. 3 statute miles visibility and 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal from clouds
    • C. 1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds
    • D. 1 statute mile visibility and 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal from clouds
    Show answer

    C. 1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds

    In Class G airspace at or below 1,200 feet AGL during the day, 14 CFR 91.155 requires only 1 statute mile visibility and remaining clear of clouds. The stricter 3 SM/152 cloud clearance rules apply above 1,200 feet AGL or at night.

  14. 14. An airplane has a stalling speed of 50 knots in straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight. What is its approximate stalling speed while in a coordinated, level 60° bank turn?

    Aircraft Performance and Systems

    • A. 71 knots
    • B. 50 knots
    • C. 61 knots
    • D. 100 knots
    Show answer

    A. 71 knots

    A 60° bank turn produces a load factor of 2 G. Stall speed increases by the square root of the load factor: new stall speed = 50 × √2 = 50 × 1.41 ≈ 71 knots.

  15. 15. A pilot must clear a 50-foot obstacle shortly after takeoff on a short runway. Which airspeed should be used to maximize climb performance over the obstacle?

    Aircraft Performance and Systems

    • A. VY, best rate of climb speed
    • B. VFE, maximum flap extended speed
    • C. VX, best angle of climb speed
    • D. VA, maneuvering speed
    Show answer

    C. VX, best angle of climb speed

    VX (best angle of climb speed) gains the most altitude for a given horizontal distance traveled, making it ideal for clearing obstacles close to the runway. VY gains altitude fastest per unit time but covers more ground distance.

  16. 16. During a night takeoff over dark terrain, a pilot experiences rapid acceleration on the runway. Without visual references, the pilot suddenly feels as though the aircraft has pitched up excessively and instinctively pushes forward on the control stick. What illusion is the pilot experiencing?

    Human Factors and ADM

    • A. False horizon
    • B. Somatogravic illusion
    • C. Coriolis illusion
    • D. Autokinesis
    Show answer

    B. Somatogravic illusion

    The somatogravic illusion occurs when rapid linear acceleration, such as during takeoff, is misinterpreted by the vestibular system as a nose-up pitch attitude, prompting the pilot to push the nose down dangerously close to the ground. Trusting flight instruments rather than bodily sensations prevents this hazard.

  17. 17. A preflight weather briefing includes a Convective SIGMET for the route of flight. Which of the following conditions would justify the issuance of this advisory?

    Weather

    • A. Sustained surface winds of 20 knots with blowing dust
    • B. Widespread areas of moderate turbulence forecast above FL180
    • C. A line of thunderstorms affecting at least 40% of a 3,000-square-mile area, or thunderstorms with heavy precipitation
    • D. A single isolated cumulus cloud producing light rain showers
    Show answer

    C. A line of thunderstorms affecting at least 40% of a 3,000-square-mile area, or thunderstorms with heavy precipitation

    A Convective SIGMET is issued for a line of thunderstorms, thunderstorms affecting 40% or more of a 3,000-square-mile area, embedded thunderstorms, or any severe/hail-producing thunderstorm. It also implies possible severe/extreme turbulence, wind shear, and hail.

  18. 18. While reviewing a sectional chart, a pilot notices that a nearby airport symbol is printed in blue rather than magenta. What does this indicate?

    Airspace and Navigation

    • A. The airport is located within a Restricted Area
    • B. The airport has no control tower
    • C. The airport is a private-use facility only
    • D. The airport has an operating control tower
    Show answer

    D. The airport has an operating control tower

    On sectional charts, airport symbols are printed in blue if the airport has an operating control tower, and in magenta if it does not. This color coding helps pilots quickly identify whether they need to establish two-way radio communication before entering the airport's traffic pattern or associated airspace.

  19. 19. A sport pilot planning a cross-country flight uses available weather briefings, checks NOTAMs, consults a flight instructor about an unfamiliar airport, and reviews the aircraft's performance charts before departure. This behavior best exemplifies which concept?

    Human Factors and ADM

    • A. The 3P Model
    • B. Single-Pilot Resource Management (SRM)
    • C. The DECIDE Model
    • D. The IMSAFE Checklist
    Show answer

    B. Single-Pilot Resource Management (SRM)

    Single-Pilot Resource Management (SRM) is the ability to effectively gather information and use all available resources — human, hardware, and information — to safely conduct a flight when operating alone. Using weather briefings, NOTAMs, an instructor's advice, and performance data all reflect the effective use of information resources under SRM.

  20. 20. A pilot notes that at a certain altitude, the airplane's maximum rate of climb has decreased to only 100 feet per minute. This altitude best represents which performance limit?

    Aircraft Performance and Systems

    • A. Critical altitude
    • B. Density altitude limit
    • C. Service ceiling
    • D. Absolute ceiling
    Show answer

    C. Service ceiling

    Service ceiling is defined as the altitude at which the airplane's maximum rate of climb decreases to 100 feet per minute. Absolute ceiling is the altitude at which climb rate reaches zero.

  21. 21. During preflight planning under 14 CFR 91.103, a sport pilot reviews NOTAMs for the departure and destination airports. Which of the following is a primary reason NOTAMs must be checked?

    Regulations

    • A. NOTAMs replace the need to check current weather reports and forecasts
    • B. NOTAMs are only required for flights conducted under IFR, not VFR
    • C. NOTAMs list the current density altitude at each airport along the route
    • D. NOTAMs provide information such as runway closures, taxiway restrictions, and out-of-service navigation aids
    Show answer

    D. NOTAMs provide information such as runway closures, taxiway restrictions, and out-of-service navigation aids

    NOTAMs (Notices to Air Missions) contain time-critical information such as runway/taxiway closures, obstructions, and navigation aid outages that are not yet published in aeronautical charts. 14 CFR 91.103 requires pilots to become familiar with all available information, which includes NOTAMs for the intended flight.

  22. 22. A pilot notices a dashed line on a sectional chart labeled '10°E' running roughly north to south across the planned route. What does this line represent, and how does it affect flight planning?

    Airspace and Navigation

    • A. The lateral boundary of a Class E transition area
    • B. A time zone boundary requiring the pilot to adjust the clock during flight
    • C. A Victor airway centerline connecting two VOR stations
    • D. An isogonic line connecting points of equal magnetic variation, used to convert between true and magnetic courses
    Show answer

    D. An isogonic line connecting points of equal magnetic variation, used to convert between true and magnetic courses

    An isogonic line is a dashed line on aeronautical charts connecting points of equal magnetic variation. The labeled value (e.g., 10°E) tells the pilot how many degrees to add or subtract when converting a true course to a magnetic course in that area.

  23. 23. A pilot departs an airport where the current altimeter setting is correct, but the outside air temperature is significantly colder than standard for that altitude. Compared to the indicated altitude on the altimeter, the airplane's true altitude will be

    Aircraft Performance and Systems

    • A. the same as indicated altitude
    • B. higher than indicated altitude
    • C. lower than indicated altitude
    • D. unpredictable without additional data
    Show answer

    C. lower than indicated altitude

    In colder-than-standard air, air is denser, so pressure levels are compressed closer together than standard, causing the airplane to actually be lower than the altimeter indicates. This is summarized by the memory aid 'from hot to cold or high to low, look out below,' warning pilots that true altitude may be lower than indicated in cold temperatures, especially critical near mountainous terrain.

  24. 24. A four-stroke reciprocating engine, as used in most light sport airplanes, completes one operating cycle through four piston strokes. What is the correct sequence of these strokes?

    Aircraft Performance and Systems

    • A. Compression, Intake, Power, Exhaust
    • B. Power, Compression, Exhaust, Intake
    • C. Intake, Compression, Power, Exhaust
    • D. Intake, Power, Compression, Exhaust
    Show answer

    C. Intake, Compression, Power, Exhaust

    The four-stroke cycle occurs in this order: intake (fuel/air mixture drawn in), compression (mixture compressed), power (ignition drives piston down), and exhaust (burned gases expelled).

  25. 25. During a preflight briefing, a pilot is advised that virga is visible beneath cumulus clouds along the route but that thunderstorms are not yet reported. What hazard should the pilot be most concerned about near these clouds?

    Weather

    • A. Widespread advection fog forming beneath the cloud bases
    • B. Freezing rain at the surface due to warm rain falling through a subfreezing layer
    • C. A stationary front developing directly beneath the virga
    • D. A strong, potentially damaging downdraft or microburst caused by evaporative cooling of the falling precipitation
    Show answer

    D. A strong, potentially damaging downdraft or microburst caused by evaporative cooling of the falling precipitation

    Virga is precipitation that evaporates before reaching the ground; the evaporative cooling process can create a strong downdraft, sometimes leading to a dry microburst even in the absence of visible surface rain or a mature thunderstorm.

FAA Sport Pilot Airplane (SPA) flashcards

Tap a card to flip it. 197 flashcards in the full deck.

  • Time En Route Calculation

    Flip card

    Time en route is found by dividing the distance to be flown by the groundspeed, not the true airspeed, since groundspeed accounts for wind effects.

    • Time (hr) = Distance (NM) ÷ Groundspeed (kt)
    • Always use groundspeed, not TAS, in this formula
    • Headwinds reduce groundspeed, increasing flight time
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  • Squall Line

    Flip card

    A squall line is a narrow, non-frontal band of active thunderstorms that frequently forms ahead of a fast-moving cold front, capable of producing severe turbulence, hail, and damaging straight-line winds.

    • Non-frontal but often precedes a cold front
    • Can produce severe/organized convective weather
    • One of the most hazardous weather phenomena to aviation
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  • Groundspeed & ETE Calculation

    Flip card

    Groundspeed is determined by dividing distance traveled by time elapsed; estimated time enroute (ETE) for remaining distance is found by dividing remaining distance by groundspeed.

    • Groundspeed = distance ÷ time
    • ETE = remaining distance ÷ groundspeed
    • Convert hours to minutes by multiplying by 60
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  • Get-There-Itis

    Flip card

    A hazardous mindset where a pilot becomes fixated on completing a flight as originally planned, often ignoring safer alternatives such as delaying or canceling.

    • Common contributing factor in weather-related accidents
    • Driven by schedule pressure, external commitments, or ego
    • Best countered by having and using personal minimums and alternate plans
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  • Class B Clearance Requirement

    Flip card

    Unlike Class C and D, Class B airspace requires an explicit ATC clearance to enter, not just two-way radio communication.

    • Governed by 14 CFR 91.131
    • 'Radar contact' or a squawk code assignment is NOT clearance
    • Clearance must explicitly state the aircraft may enter Class Bravo airspace
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  • Alternate Static Source

    Flip card

    A backup static pressure source, often vented inside the cabin, used when the primary static port is blocked.

    • Cabin pressure is usually slightly lower than outside static pressure
    • Causes altimeter to read higher than actual altitude
    • Causes airspeed indicator to read higher than actual airspeed
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  • Standard Lapse Rate

    Flip card

    The rate at which temperature decreases with altitude in the standard atmosphere, used as a baseline for performance charts.

    • 2°C (3.5°F) per 1,000 ft
    • Standard sea-level temp = 15°C, pressure = 29.92 in Hg
    • Used to compute pressure altitude and density altitude corrections
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  • Light-Sport Aircraft Definition

    Flip card

    A category of aircraft defined by 14 CFR 1.1 with specific limits on weight, speed, seating, and configuration.

    • Max weight 1,320 lb (landplane) or 1,430 lb (seaplane)
    • Max airspeed 120 knots CAS
    • Max 2 seats, single reciprocating engine, fixed-pitch/ground-adjustable prop
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  • The Leans

    Flip card

    A spatial disorientation illusion where a pilot senses being in a bank when the aircraft is actually level, or vice versa, due to a slow return to level flight.

    • Most common vestibular illusion in flight
    • Caused by insufficient stimulation of inner ear during a gradual bank correction
    • Corrected by trusting flight instruments over bodily sensations
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  • Knowledge Test Endorsement (61.35(a)(1))

    Flip card

    Before taking the aeronautical knowledge test, an applicant must have an endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying required ground training was completed and the applicant is prepared for the test.

    • Endorsement must come from an authorized flight instructor
    • Certifies completion of ground training or home-study course
    • Required before scheduling the FAA knowledge test
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  • Preflight Action & TFRs (91.103)

    Flip card

    Pilots must become familiar with all available information for a flight, including NOTAMs and temporary flight restrictions, regardless of flight rules or distance.

    • Applies to VFR and IFR flights alike
    • Includes NOTAMs, TFRs, weather, runway lengths, alternates
    • Violating a TFR can result in certificate action even under VFR
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  • Preflight Action (91.103)

    Flip card

    Regulation requiring pilots to become familiar with all available information for a flight, including weather, fuel requirements, and alternatives, especially for flights away from an airport.

    • Applies to all pilots before every flight
    • Includes weather, runway lengths, fuel requirements, alternatives
    • Extra items required for flights not in the vicinity of an airport
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  • Class G VFR Minimums (Day, ≤1,200 ft AGL)

    Flip card

    Basic VFR weather minimums for uncontrolled airspace at or below 1,200 feet AGL during daylight hours require 1 statute mile visibility and remaining clear of clouds.

    • Applies only at or below 1,200 ft AGL during the day
    • Requires 1 SM visibility, clear of clouds
    • Above 1,200 ft AGL, standard 3SM/152 minimums apply
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  • Load Factor and Stall Speed in Turns

    Flip card

    As bank angle increases in a level turn, load factor increases, and stall speed increases proportionally to the square root of the load factor.

    • 30° bank = 1.15G load factor
    • 45° bank = 1.41G load factor
    • 60° bank = 2G load factor
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  • Best Angle of Climb Speed (VX)

    Flip card

    The airspeed that produces the greatest gain in altitude over the shortest horizontal ground distance, used for obstacle clearance.

    • Slower than VY
    • Used for short-field/obstacle takeoffs
    • VY is used for maximum altitude gain per unit time
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  • Somatogravic Illusion

    Flip card

    A vestibular illusion in which rapid linear acceleration or deceleration is falsely perceived as a change in pitch attitude.

    • Common during rapid takeoff acceleration or go-arounds
    • Causes pilots to push the nose down, risking controlled flight into terrain
    • Combat by trusting the attitude indicator over bodily sensation
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  • Convective SIGMET

    Flip card

    A weather advisory for significant convective activity, including severe thunderstorm lines, embedded thunderstorms, and areas of thunderstorms covering 40% or more of a region.

    • Implies possible severe/extreme turbulence, severe icing, and wind shear
    • Covers 40%+ areal coverage or lines of thunderstorms
    • Issued for continental U.S., valid for 2 hours
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  • Sectional Airport Symbol Colors

    Flip card

    Airport symbols on sectional charts are color-coded: blue indicates an airport with an operating control tower, and magenta indicates one without.

    • Blue symbol = towered airport
    • Magenta symbol = non-towered airport
    • CT frequency listed nearby indicates part-time tower operations
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  • Single-Pilot Resource Management (SRM)

    Flip card

    The art and science of managing all available resources — human, hardware, and information — to ensure a safe and efficient flight conducted by a single pilot.

    • Includes use of ATC, briefings, checklists, automation, and outside expertise
    • Encourages situational awareness, task management, and risk management
    • Distinguishes single-pilot operations from crew resource management (CRM) used in multi-pilot crews
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  • Service Ceiling

    Flip card

    The maximum density altitude at which an airplane can still achieve a 100 feet-per-minute rate of climb.

    • Defined by 100 fpm climb rate, not zero climb
    • Absolute ceiling is where climb rate = 0 fpm
    • Both ceilings decrease with increased weight or reduced power
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  • NOTAMs (Notices to Air Missions)

    Flip card

    Time-critical aeronautical information not known far enough in advance to be published in charts, such as runway closures or NAVAID outages.

    • Required review item under 91.103 preflight action
    • Cover closures, obstructions, NAVAID/lighting outages, TFRs
    • Available through Flight Service and online briefing sources
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  • Isogonic Line

    Flip card

    A dashed line on aeronautical charts connecting points of equal magnetic variation, labeled with the variation value.

    • Used to convert true course to magnetic course (TC ± variation)
    • An agonic line marks where variation equals 0°
    • Variation differs from compass deviation, which is aircraft-specific
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  • Temperature Effect on Altimetry

    Flip card

    Non-standard temperatures cause the altimeter to misrepresent true altitude because it is calibrated for standard atmospheric conditions.

    • Colder than standard: true altitude is lower than indicated
    • Warmer than standard: true altitude is higher than indicated
    • Mnemonic: 'From hot to cold or high to low, look out below'
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  • Four-Stroke Engine Cycle

    Flip card

    The sequence of intake, compression, power, and exhaust strokes that a piston completes to produce mechanical work in a reciprocating engine.

    • Intake stroke draws in fuel/air mixture
    • Compression stroke compresses the mixture before ignition
    • Power stroke is created by spark ignition driving the piston down
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