Step2Study
AviationPAR100% Free

FAA Private Pilot Airplane (PAR)

Practice bank
213 Qs
Real exam
60 Qs
Time limit
150 min
Passing
70%

Exam blueprint

Regulations
15%
Airspace and Airports
15%
Weather Theory and Services
20%
Aerodynamics and Aircraft Systems
15%
Performance, Weight and Balance
15%
Navigation and Flight Planning
15%
Aeromedical Factors and ADM
5%

Practice

Untimed · instant feedback · 4 practice tests of 90 questions

Questions per test

Custom practice

Flashcard on every question Mental map when you miss

Exam simulation

4 timed tests · 90 questions each · 225 min · pass 70% · 213 questions in the bank

+50 XP per test · +100 XP for a pass

Random simulation (weighted by domain)

Everything is open to everyone. Create a free account to save scores, XP, badges and get progress emails.

Free study resources

All resources →

Part of a learning path

Study with friends

Challenge a friend to beat your score.

FAA Private Pilot Airplane (PAR) practice test questions

Sample questions from the 213-question bank, with answers and explanations.

All questions
  1. 1. A pilot reviewing weather products for a cross-country flight sees that an AIRMET Zulu has been issued for the route. What hazard does this specifically indicate?

    Weather Theory and Services

    • A. Moderate icing conditions and freezing levels
    • B. Severe or extreme turbulence associated with thunderstorms
    • C. Widespread sandstorms or dust storms reducing visibility
    • D. Severe icing requiring immediate pilot report
    Show answer

    A. Moderate icing conditions and freezing levels

    AIRMET Zulu advises of moderate icing conditions and provides freezing level information. AIRMET Sierra covers IFR conditions and mountain obscuration, while AIRMET Tango covers turbulence, strong surface winds, and low-level wind shear. Severe conditions are instead covered by SIGMETs.

  2. 2. A pilot reviewing a METAR observes the entry '1/2SM R28L/2600FT'. How should this information be interpreted?

    Weather Theory and Services

    • A. Visibility is variable between 1/2 mile and 2,600 feet along Runway 28L
    • B. Prevailing surface visibility is 1/2 statute mile, and the runway visual range for Runway 28L is 2,600 feet
    • C. Prevailing visibility is 2,600 feet and runway visual range is 1/2 statute mile
    • D. The ceiling is 2,600 feet with 1/2 mile of runway remaining visible
    Show answer

    B. Prevailing surface visibility is 1/2 statute mile, and the runway visual range for Runway 28L is 2,600 feet

    In METAR format, prevailing visibility is reported first in statute miles, followed by runway visual range (RVR) data when applicable, given in hundreds of feet for the specified runway. Here, prevailing visibility is 1/2 statute mile and RVR for Runway 28L is 2,600 feet.

  3. 3. A pilot's weather briefing includes a SIGMET for severe icing over a 200-mile-wide area and a Convective SIGMET for a line of embedded thunderstorms producing hail 1 inch in diameter. Which statement best describes the difference between these two advisories?

    Weather Theory and Services

    • A. SIGMETs apply only to aircraft below 18,000 feet, while Convective SIGMETs apply only to aircraft above 18,000 feet
    • B. SIGMETs address hazards significant to all aircraft, such as severe icing, severe turbulence, and dust storms, while Convective SIGMETs specifically address thunderstorm-related hazards like tornadoes, lines of thunderstorms, or hail 3/4 inch or greater
    • C. SIGMETs and Convective SIGMETs are interchangeable terms for the same category of weather advisory
    • D. Convective SIGMETs are issued only for isolated, non-severe thunderstorm activity affecting small aircraft
    Show answer

    B. SIGMETs address hazards significant to all aircraft, such as severe icing, severe turbulence, and dust storms, while Convective SIGMETs specifically address thunderstorm-related hazards like tornadoes, lines of thunderstorms, or hail 3/4 inch or greater

    SIGMETs (WS) cover non-convective hazards significant to all aircraft, including severe icing, severe or extreme turbulence, dust/sandstorms, and volcanic ash. Convective SIGMETs (WST) are issued specifically for thunderstorm-related hazards such as tornadoes, lines of thunderstorms, embedded thunderstorms, wind gusts of 50 knots or greater, or hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter.

  4. 4. A TAF for an airport includes the group 'FM2100 22015G25KT P6SM SCT030'. What does the 'FM2100' portion indicate to the pilot?

    Weather Theory and Services

    • A. The forecast is valid only from 2100Z until the end of the TAF period
    • B. A temporary fluctuation in conditions expected for one hour starting at 2100Z
    • C. A 30% probability of the described conditions occurring at 2100Z
    • D. A rapid and significant change in conditions expected beginning at 2100Z, replacing the previous forecast group
    Show answer

    D. A rapid and significant change in conditions expected beginning at 2100Z, replacing the previous forecast group

    The 'FM' (from) group in a TAF marks a rapid, significant, and usually permanent change in conditions expected at the indicated time; it completely replaces the prior forecast group rather than being temporary or probabilistic.

  5. 5. A pilot's weather briefing reveals a temperature profile with a surface temperature of -3°C, but a layer of warmer air aloft above 4,000 feet reporting temperatures around +5°C. Rain is falling from that warm layer into the sub-freezing air near the surface. What icing hazard does this scenario describe?

    Weather Theory and Services

    • A. Rime ice forming within stratiform clouds at high altitude
    • B. Clear ice forming inside actively growing convective cells
    • C. Frost accumulation due to radiational cooling overnight
    • D. Freezing rain caused by warm air aloft overrunning colder air at the surface
    Show answer

    D. Freezing rain caused by warm air aloft overrunning colder air at the surface

    This classic freezing rain setup occurs when warm air overruns a shallow layer of subfreezing air near the surface, often associated with a warm front. Precipitation falls as liquid rain through the warm layer, then becomes supercooled and freezes on contact with the cold surface or aircraft below.

  6. 6. A pilot is briefed that the density altitude at the departure airport is significantly higher than the field elevation. What does density altitude represent?

    Performance, Weight and Balance

    • A. The height above sea level shown on the altimeter
    • B. Indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard pressure only
    • C. True altitude adjusted for wind direction and speed
    • D. Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature
    Show answer

    D. Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature

    Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for temperature deviations from the standard atmosphere. It represents the altitude in the standard atmosphere at which the air density would be equal to the actual air density, and it directly affects aircraft performance.

  7. 7. A student pilot repeatedly disregards checklist procedures, believing that rules are meant for less experienced pilots and don't fully apply to their own flying. This attitude is best described as which hazardous attitude, and what is its recommended antidote?

    Aeromedical Factors and ADM

    • A. Invulnerability; antidote is 'It could happen to me'
    • B. Resignation; antidote is 'I'm not helpless, I can make a difference'
    • C. Anti-authority; antidote is 'Follow the rules, they are usually right'
    • D. Macho; antidote is 'Taking chances is foolish'
    Show answer

    C. Anti-authority; antidote is 'Follow the rules, they are usually right'

    Disregarding rules and believing they don't apply personally is the anti-authority hazardous attitude, whose recommended antidote is 'Follow the rules, they are usually right.'

  8. 8. A pilot plans to land at an airport with a part-time control tower inside Class D airspace. Upon arrival, the pilot notices the tower is closed and the ATIS is off. What is the correct procedure?

    Airspace and Airports

    • A. The airspace remains Class D and the pilot must contact approach control before entering
    • B. The pilot must divert to another airport since the airspace cannot be entered without a tower
    • C. The airspace reverts to Class E or G and the pilot should self-announce on the CTAF
    • D. The airspace becomes Class A and requires an IFR clearance
    Show answer

    C. The airspace reverts to Class E or G and the pilot should self-announce on the CTAF

    When a part-time control tower is closed, the surface area typically reverts to Class E (if weather reporting exists) or Class G airspace, and pilots use the CTAF to self-announce position and intentions as they would at any nontowered airport.

  9. 9. A pilot flying near a developing thunderstorm notices very heavy rain, frequent lightning, and strong gusty surface winds spreading outward from the storm, along with both updrafts and downdrafts occurring simultaneously within the cell. Which stage of the thunderstorm life cycle is this?

    Weather Theory and Services

    • A. Dissipating stage
    • B. Mature stage
    • C. Cumulus stage
    • D. Towering cumulus stage without precipitation
    Show answer

    B. Mature stage

    The mature stage is marked by the onset of precipitation reaching the surface, the coexistence of strong updrafts and downdrafts, heavy rain, lightning, and gusty surface winds from the downdraft outflow (gust front). This is the most hazardous stage of a thunderstorm's life cycle.

  10. 10. A pilot arriving at a nontowered airport without an operating control tower wants to announce position on downwind. What frequency should the pilot use, and what information should be included in the transmission?

    Airspace and Airports

    • A. 121.5 MHz, stating only the aircraft call sign and current altitude
    • B. The nearest approach control frequency, stating the aircraft type and estimated time of arrival
    • C. The Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF), stating the airport name, aircraft position, and intentions
    • D. Unicom frequency 122.0, stating only the pilot's request for fuel services
    Show answer

    C. The Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF), stating the airport name, aircraft position, and intentions

    At a nontowered airport, pilots use the CTAF (often a Unicom or FSS frequency published in the Chart Supplement) to self-announce position and intentions, including the airport name, so other traffic can build situational awareness.

  11. 11. A pilot's weather briefing indicates a surface temperature of 20°C and a temperature of 5°C at 6,000 feet MSL. Using a dry adiabatic lapse rate of 3°C per 1,000 feet, what does this tell the pilot about the stability of the atmosphere?

    Weather Theory and Services

    • A. Stable, because the actual (environmental) lapse rate of 2.5°C per 1,000 feet is less than the dry adiabatic rate
    • B. Unstable, because the actual lapse rate exceeds the dry adiabatic rate
    • C. Stable, because the actual lapse rate exceeds the dry adiabatic rate
    • D. Neutral, because the two lapse rates are equal
    Show answer

    A. Stable, because the actual (environmental) lapse rate of 2.5°C per 1,000 feet is less than the dry adiabatic rate

    The environmental (actual) lapse rate is calculated as (20°C - 5°C) / 6,000 ft = 15°C / 6 (thousands of feet) = 2.5°C per 1,000 feet. Since this is less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate of 3°C per 1,000 feet, a rising parcel cools faster than its surroundings and becomes cooler (denser) than the environment, causing it to sink back — indicating a stable atmosphere.

  12. 12. A METAR report includes the group 'OVC008' followed by temperature and dew point values. What does this group indicate to the pilot?

    Weather Theory and Services

    • A. An overcast ceiling at 800 feet above ground level
    • B. An overcast layer at 800 feet mean sea level
    • C. A broken ceiling at 8,000 feet above ground level
    • D. An overcast ceiling at 80 feet above ground level
    Show answer

    A. An overcast ceiling at 800 feet above ground level

    In METAR sky condition groups, cloud height is reported in hundreds of feet AGL. 'OVC008' means overcast (OVC) sky coverage with the base at 800 feet AGL (008 x 100).

  13. 13. A TAF for KABC includes the group 'PROB30 2116/2119 1/2SM +TSRA'. How should a pilot interpret this forecast element?

    Weather Theory and Services

    • A. There is a 30 percent probability of thunderstorms with heavy rain and visibility reduced to 1/2 statute mile between 1600Z and 1900Z on the 21st
    • B. Ceilings will be 300 feet with thunderstorms for 30 minutes starting at 1600Z on the 21st
    • C. Thunderstorms are certain to occur, with a 30 percent chance of hail, between 1600Z and 1900Z on the 21st
    • D. There is a 30 percent probability of a wind shift of 30 degrees occurring between 1600Z and 1900Z on the 21st
    Show answer

    A. There is a 30 percent probability of thunderstorms with heavy rain and visibility reduced to 1/2 statute mile between 1600Z and 1900Z on the 21st

    The 'PROB30' group indicates a 30 percent probability of the conditions occurring during the specified time period. The time group '2116/2119' means the 21st day of the month from 1600Z to 1900Z, and '1/2SM +TSRA' means visibility of 1/2 statute mile in a thunderstorm with heavy rain.

  14. 14. A pilot is comparing two otherwise identical piston engines: one normally aspirated and one turbocharged. Both are climbing to 14,000 feet density altitude. Which statement correctly describes the primary advantage of the turbocharged engine at this altitude?

    Aerodynamics and Aircraft Systems

    • A. It compresses intake air using exhaust gas energy, allowing it to maintain sea-level manifold pressure at altitude
    • B. It burns less fuel per horsepower produced than the normally aspirated engine
    • C. It uses a supercharger driven directly by the crankshaft to increase manifold pressure
    • D. It eliminates the possibility of carburetor icing at high altitude
    Show answer

    A. It compresses intake air using exhaust gas energy, allowing it to maintain sea-level manifold pressure at altitude

    A turbocharger uses a turbine driven by exhaust gases to compress incoming intake air, allowing the engine to maintain sea-level (or higher) manifold pressure at altitudes where a normally aspirated engine's power output would be significantly reduced due to lower ambient air density.

  15. 15. While flying in a coordinated turn in instrument conditions, a pilot abruptly tilts their head down to pick up a dropped chart. Immediately afterward, the pilot experiences a strong, disorienting sensation of tumbling or rotating on a completely different axis than the actual turn. This dangerous illusion is best identified as which spatial disorientation phenomenon?

    Aeromedical Factors and ADM

    • A. Elevator illusion
    • B. Autokinesis
    • C. Coriolis illusion
    • D. False horizon illusion
    Show answer

    C. Coriolis illusion

    The Coriolis illusion occurs when a pilot moves their head out of the plane of an existing turn, causing the semicircular canals of the inner ear to signal a false and often severe sensation of rotation on a completely different axis, which can lead to spatial disorientation and loss of control.

  16. 16. A pilot plans to fly the day after scuba diving to a depth requiring a controlled ascent with a decompression stop. According to FAA guidance on flying after diving, how long should the pilot wait before flight to reduce the risk of decompression sickness?

    Aeromedical Factors and ADM

    • A. At least 4 hours
    • B. At least 48 hours
    • C. At least 12 hours
    • D. At least 24 hours
    Show answer

    D. At least 24 hours

    FAA guidance recommends waiting at least 24 hours after a dive requiring a decompression stop before flying, due to the higher risk of decompression sickness from residual nitrogen in the body at altitude.

  17. 17. An airplane's empty weight is 1,350 lb at an arm of 78.0 in. The pilot and passenger weigh a total of 340 lb at an arm of 85.0 in. Fuel is loaded at 30 gallons (6 lb/gal) at an arm of 95.0 in, and baggage of 40 lb is loaded at an arm of 140.0 in. What is the airplane's center of gravity?

    Performance, Weight and Balance

    • A. 85.0 in
    • B. 90.5 in
    • C. 78.0 in
    • D. 82.1 in
    Show answer

    D. 82.1 in

    Total weight = 1,350 + 340 + 180 + 40 = 1,910 lb. Total moment = (1,350×78.0)+(340×85.0)+(180×95.0)+(40×140.0) = 105,300+28,900+17,100+5,600 = 156,900 lb-in. CG = 156,900 ÷ 1,910 = 82.1 in.

  18. 18. A pilot departs an airport at a field elevation of 2,000 feet MSL where the surface temperature is 20°C. Assuming a standard atmosphere and standard lapse rate, what outside air temperature should the pilot expect upon reaching 8,000 feet MSL?

    Weather Theory and Services

    • A. 8°C
    • B. 4°C
    • C. 14°C
    • D. 12°C
    Show answer

    A. 8°C

    The standard atmospheric lapse rate is approximately 2°C per 1,000 feet of altitude gain. Climbing from 2,000 feet to 8,000 feet is a gain of 6,000 feet, which produces a temperature decrease of 6 × 2°C = 12°C. Subtracting this from the surface temperature: 20°C − 12°C = 8°C.

  19. 19. A pilot plans a flight at 20,000 feet MSL over the continental United States. What airspace classification will the pilot be operating in, and what minimum equipment is required?

    Airspace and Airports

    • A. Class A airspace; the aircraft must be operated under IFR with an appropriately rated pilot
    • B. Class G airspace; VFR flight is unrestricted at this altitude
    • C. Class B airspace; a Mode C transponder and two-way radio are required
    • D. Class E airspace; VFR flight is permitted with no special equipment required
    Show answer

    A. Class A airspace; the aircraft must be operated under IFR with an appropriately rated pilot

    Class A airspace extends from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600 over the continental U.S. All operations in Class A airspace must be conducted under IFR, regardless of weather conditions, and the aircraft must be equipped and the pilot instrument rated.

  20. 20. While climbing through 5,000 feet, a pilot's static port becomes completely blocked by ice, but the pitot tube remains clear. Assuming the pilot continues the climb, how will the airspeed indicator most likely behave?

    Aerodynamics and Aircraft Systems

    • A. It will read higher than the actual airspeed as altitude increases
    • B. It will read lower than the actual airspeed as altitude increases
    • C. It will read accurately since the pitot tube is unobstructed
    • D. It will freeze at the airspeed indicated at the moment of the blockage
    Show answer

    B. It will read lower than the actual airspeed as altitude increases

    With the static port blocked, the airspeed indicator continues to reference the trapped static pressure from the altitude at which the blockage occurred, which is higher than the actual (lower) static pressure at higher altitudes. Because the differential between pitot pressure and this artificially high static pressure is smaller than it should be, the airspeed indicator will read lower than the true airspeed as the airplane climbs.

  21. 21. A private pilot has just been informed of an unexpected schedule change that requires them to fly a longer route than planned, arriving after dark. The pilot thinks, 'I've flown at night before, nothing bad will happen to me,' and departs without reviewing night currency requirements or a flashlight for the cockpit. This thought process best reflects which hazardous attitude?

    Aeromedical Factors and ADM

    • A. Macho
    • B. Impulsivity
    • C. Resignation
    • D. Invulnerability
    Show answer

    D. Invulnerability

    The belief that 'accidents happen to others, not to me' despite skipping proper preparation reflects the invulnerability hazardous attitude, whose antidote is 'It could happen to me.'

  22. 22. During a preflight weather briefing, a pilot is told that a maritime tropical (mT) air mass will influence the route of flight. What characteristics should the pilot expect from this air mass?

    Weather Theory and Services

    • A. Cold and dry
    • B. Warm and moist
    • C. Cold and moist
    • D. Warm and dry
    Show answer

    B. Warm and moist

    Air masses are classified by their source region. A maritime tropical (mT) air mass forms over warm tropical oceans, making it warm and moist, often bringing high humidity and instability.

  23. 23. A pilot climbing without supplemental oxygen begins to feel euphoric and notices degraded night vision and slowed reaction time, though the pilot feels completely normal otherwise. This condition, caused by insufficient oxygen reaching the brain and other body tissues due to reduced partial pressure of oxygen at altitude, is best classified as which type of hypoxia?

    Aeromedical Factors and ADM

    • A. Hypemic hypoxia
    • B. Stagnant hypoxia
    • C. Hypoxic hypoxia
    • D. Histotoxic hypoxia
    Show answer

    C. Hypoxic hypoxia

    Hypoxic hypoxia results from insufficient oxygen in the air being breathed, typically due to altitude, and is the most common form pilots encounter.

  24. 24. During takeoff roll in a single-engine airplane with a clockwise-rotating propeller (as viewed from the cockpit), the pilot must apply right rudder pressure to keep the nose tracking straight down the runway centerline, with the need for correction increasing as the tail rises and the airplane accelerates at high power and low airspeed. Which left-turning tendency is primarily responsible for this yaw during the initial climb at a high angle of attack?

    Aerodynamics and Aircraft Systems

    • A. Torque reaction from the engine and propeller
    • B. Spiraling slipstream wrapping around the fuselage
    • C. Gyroscopic precession from the propeller
    • D. P-factor from asymmetric propeller thrust
    Show answer

    D. P-factor from asymmetric propeller thrust

    P-factor (asymmetric thrust) occurs when the airplane is flown at a high angle of attack, causing the descending propeller blade (on the right side, for a clockwise-turning prop) to have a greater angle of attack and produce more thrust than the ascending blade on the left. This creates a yawing moment to the left, most pronounced during climb at low airspeed and high power.

  25. 25. While taxiing for departure during daylight hours, a pilot notices the airport's rotating beacon is turned on. What does this indicate?

    Airspace and Airports

    • A. The control tower is closed and the airport is operating as nontowered
    • B. Weather conditions at the airport are below basic VFR minimums
    • C. The airport is closed to all traffic until the beacon is turned off
    • D. IFR traffic is inbound and VFR aircraft should remain clear of the pattern
    Show answer

    B. Weather conditions at the airport are below basic VFR minimums

    At an airport located within Class D, C, B, or E surface airspace, operation of the rotating beacon during daylight hours signals that weather conditions in the airspace are below basic VFR minimums, meaning IFR clearance is required for arrivals and departures.

FAA Private Pilot Airplane (PAR) flashcards

Tap a card to flip it. 196 flashcards in the full deck.

  • AIRMET Zulu

    Flip card

    An AIRMET (Airmen's Meteorological Information) advisory for moderate icing conditions and forecast freezing levels, significant to light aircraft and VFR operations but less severe than SIGMET criteria.

    • AIRMET Sierra = IFR conditions and mountain obscuration
    • AIRMET Tango = turbulence, strong surface winds, low-level wind shear
    • AIRMET Zulu = moderate icing and freezing level heights
    Study this card →
  • METAR Visibility and RVR

    Flip card

    METAR reports prevailing visibility in statute miles first, followed by runway visual range (RVR) in feet for specific runways when reported.

    • RVR format: R(runway)/(value)FT
    • RVR is used mainly for low-visibility operations
    • Prevailing visibility always precedes RVR in the METAR sequence
    Study this card →
  • SIGMET vs. Convective SIGMET

    Flip card

    A SIGMET warns of non-convective hazards significant to all aircraft (severe icing/turbulence, dust storms, volcanic ash), while a Convective SIGMET specifically warns of severe thunderstorm-related hazards like tornadoes, hail 3/4 inch or greater, or 50-knot surface winds.

    • SIGMET (WS): icing, turbulence, dust/sandstorms, volcanic ash
    • Convective SIGMET (WST): tornadoes, lines of storms, hail ≥3/4 inch, gusts ≥50 kt
    • Both are significant to all aircraft, unlike AIRMETs (light aircraft focus)
    Study this card →
  • TAF FM Group

    Flip card

    In a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast, 'FM' followed by a time indicates a rapid, significant change in prevailing conditions that begins at that time and completely replaces the previous forecast group.

    • FM = From, marks abrupt permanent-type change
    • BECMG = Becoming, gradual change over a time range
    • TEMPO = Temporary, fluctuations lasting less than an hour at a time
    Study this card →
  • Freezing Rain Formation

    Flip card

    Freezing rain forms when precipitation falls as liquid through a warm layer aloft, then becomes supercooled while passing through a shallow subfreezing layer near the surface, freezing on contact with cold surfaces.

    • Commonly associated with warm fronts overrunning cold air
    • Requires a temperature inversion with warm air above freezing, cold air below
    • Considered one of the most hazardous icing conditions for aircraft
    Study this card →
  • Density Altitude

    Flip card

    Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature; it reflects the air density affecting engine, propeller, and wing performance.

    • High temperature increases density altitude
    • High density altitude decreases air density
    • Affects takeoff, climb, and landing performance
    Study this card →
  • Anti-Authority Hazardous Attitude

    Flip card

    A hazardous attitude characterized by resentment of rules and regulations, often expressed as 'don't tell me' thinking.

    • Antidote: 'Follow the rules, they are usually right'
    • One of five hazardous attitudes in ADM
    • Can lead to skipping checklists or procedures
    Study this card →
  • Part-Time Class D Airspace

    Flip card

    When a tower operates only part-time, the surrounding Class D airspace becomes Class E or G when the tower is closed, and pilots follow standard nontowered airport procedures.

    • Chart Supplement lists tower operating hours
    • CTAF frequency is used for self-announcements when tower is closed
    • Airspace class effectively changes based on tower operating status
    Study this card →
  • Thunderstorm Life Cycle - Mature Stage

    Flip card

    The mature stage of a thunderstorm is characterized by simultaneous strong updrafts and downdrafts, heavy precipitation, lightning, and gusty outflow winds, making it the most hazardous phase for aviation.

    • Cumulus stage: updrafts only, no precipitation
    • Mature stage: updrafts + downdrafts, heavy rain, lightning, gust front
    • Dissipating stage: downdrafts dominate, precipitation decreases
    Study this card →
  • CTAF Self-Announce Procedures

    Flip card

    At nontowered airports, pilots use the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency to broadcast position, intentions, and airport name so as to alert other aircraft in the area.

    • CTAF frequency is published in the Chart Supplement
    • Typical calls include airport name, position, altitude, and intentions
    • Reduces risk of midair collision in the absence of ATC separation
    Study this card →
  • Lapse Rate Comparison for Stability

    Flip card

    Comparing the environmental (actual) lapse rate to the dry adiabatic lapse rate (3°C/1,000 ft) determines atmospheric stability: a lower environmental rate indicates stability, a higher one indicates instability.

    • Environmental lapse rate = temperature difference divided by altitude difference (in thousands of feet)
    • Dry adiabatic lapse rate is a constant 3°C per 1,000 feet
    • If environmental rate < adiabatic rate, atmosphere is stable; if greater, unstable
    Study this card →
  • METAR Sky Condition Coding

    Flip card

    Cloud cover in METARs is reported as coverage abbreviation (e.g., FEW, SCT, BKN, OVC) followed by a three-digit height code representing hundreds of feet above ground level.

    • OVC = overcast (7/8 to 8/8 sky coverage)
    • Height code x 100 = feet AGL
    • BKN = broken (5/8 to 7/8), SCT = scattered (3/8 to 4/8), FEW = few (1/8 to 2/8)
    Study this card →
  • TAF PROB Group

    Flip card

    The PROB30 (or PROB40) group in a TAF indicates the percent probability that the specified weather conditions will occur during the given time period, expressed as day/hour to day/hour in UTC.

    • PROB30/PROB40 = 30%/40% probability of occurrence
    • Time format is DDHH/DDHH in UTC
    • Used mainly for thunderstorms or low IFR conditions
    Study this card →
  • Turbocharging

    Flip card

    A method of increasing engine power at altitude by using exhaust gas energy to drive a turbine that compresses intake air, maintaining higher manifold pressure than ambient conditions would otherwise allow.

    • Turbocharger is driven by exhaust gases; supercharger is driven mechanically by the engine
    • Allows engines to maintain sea-level power to higher altitudes ('critical altitude')
    • Does not by itself prevent carburetor icing
    Study this card →
  • Coriolis Illusion

    Flip card

    A vestibular illusion caused by moving the head out of the plane of a prolonged turn, producing a false and often overwhelming sensation of rotation or tumbling on a different axis.

    • Triggered by head movement during a sustained turn
    • Considered one of the most dangerous spatial disorientation illusions
    • Prevention: avoid abrupt head movements during turns, especially in IMC
    Study this card →
  • Flying After Diving

    Flip card

    Guidance to prevent decompression sickness from residual nitrogen expanding at altitude after scuba diving.

    • No decompression stop required: wait at least 12 hours
    • Decompression stop required: wait at least 24 hours
    • Altitude reduces ambient pressure, allowing nitrogen bubbles to form
    Study this card →
  • Weight and Balance CG Calculation

    Flip card

    CG location is found by dividing total moment (sum of each item's weight × arm) by total weight.

    • Moment = weight × arm
    • Total moment ÷ total weight = CG
    • Each item (empty weight, occupants, fuel, baggage) contributes its own moment
    Study this card →
  • Standard Lapse Rate

    Flip card

    The standard atmospheric temperature lapse rate is approximately 2°C (3.5°F) per 1,000 feet of altitude increase, used to estimate temperature aloft under standard conditions.

    • Standard lapse rate: 2°C per 1,000 ft (or 3.5°F per 1,000 ft)
    • Standard sea-level temperature is 15°C
    • Used to estimate freezing level and temperature at altitude
    Study this card →
  • Class A Airspace

    Flip card

    Class A airspace extends from 18,000 feet MSL up to FL600 over the continental U.S. and requires all operations to be conducted under IFR.

    • No VFR flight is permitted in Class A airspace
    • Pilot must hold an instrument rating and file an IFR flight plan
    • Aircraft must be equipped for IFR flight, including a transponder
    Study this card →
  • Blocked Static Port Effects

    Flip card

    A blocked static port traps pressure at the altitude of the blockage, causing pitot-static instruments to misbehave predictably during subsequent altitude changes.

    • Altimeter freezes at the altitude when static blocked
    • ASI reads low during climb, high during descent (with static blocked)
    • VSI will read zero after blockage, regardless of actual climb/descent
    Study this card →
  • Invulnerability Hazardous Attitude

    Flip card

    A hazardous attitude in which a pilot believes accidents happen to others and that they personally are immune to risk, often leading to inadequate preparation or risk assessment.

    • Antidote: 'It could happen to me'
    • Leads pilots to skip precautions like currency checks or equipment
    • One of five classic ADM hazardous attitudes
    Study this card →
  • Air Mass Classification

    Flip card

    Air masses are named for their source region's moisture (maritime/continental) and temperature (tropical/polar/arctic) characteristics.

    • mT = maritime tropical = warm, moist
    • cP = continental polar = cold, dry
    • Air mass properties are modified as they move over different surfaces
    Study this card →
  • Hypoxic Hypoxia

    Flip card

    A deficiency of oxygen in the blood caused by insufficient oxygen in the inspired air, most commonly experienced at high altitude.

    • Caused by low partial pressure of O2 at altitude
    • Symptoms include euphoria, poor judgment, cyanosis
    • Time of useful consciousness decreases with altitude
    Study this card →
  • P-Factor (Asymmetric Thrust)

    Flip card

    A left-turning tendency caused by the descending propeller blade producing more thrust than the ascending blade when the airplane is at a high angle of attack.

    • Most pronounced at high power, low airspeed, high angle of attack
    • Descending blade has greater AOA and thrust than ascending blade
    • One of four left-turning tendencies along with torque, slipstream, and gyroscopic precession
    Study this card →

Questions are original practice items written to match the published exam objectives. Step2Study is not affiliated with or endorsed by any certification body.