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FAA Commercial Pilot Airplane (CAX)

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212 Qs
Real exam
100 Qs
Time limit
180 min
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70%

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Regulations
20%
Aerodynamics and Performance
25%
Aircraft Systems
20%
Weather
15%
Navigation and Flight Planning
10%
Human Factors and ADM
10%

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FAA Commercial Pilot Airplane (CAX) practice test questions

Sample questions from the 212-question bank, with answers and explanations.

All questions
  1. 1. A constant-speed propeller governor uses flyweights sensitive to engine RPM to control the oil pressure directed to the propeller hub. What is the primary purpose of this system?

    Aircraft Systems

    • A. To automatically adjust the propeller blade angle to maintain a pilot-selected RPM
    • B. To control fuel flow to the injector nozzles
    • C. To feather the propeller during normal cruise flight
    • D. To vary manifold pressure independent of the throttle setting
    Show answer

    A. To automatically adjust the propeller blade angle to maintain a pilot-selected RPM

    The governor senses RPM through flyweights and meters oil pressure to change propeller blade angle, holding RPM constant at the value selected by the pilot regardless of airspeed or power changes.

  2. 2. An airplane's positive limit load factor is 3.8G. While cruising at maneuvering speed, the airplane encounters turbulence that produces a momentary gust load factor of 3.5G. What is the most accurate conclusion?

    Aerodynamics and Performance

    • A. The gust load factor is irrelevant because turbulence loads are not structural loads
    • B. The load remained within the airplane's limit load factor, and no structural damage should occur
    • C. The airplane exceeded its structural limits and must be inspected for damage
    • D. The load exceeded the ultimate load factor, making airframe failure likely
    Show answer

    B. The load remained within the airplane's limit load factor, and no structural damage should occur

    Since 3.5G is less than the airplane's positive limit load factor of 3.8G, the structure remains within its design limits and no permanent deformation or damage should occur. The limit load factor represents the maximum load the structure can sustain without permanent damage, while the ultimate load factor (typically 1.5× limit) is the point of structural failure.

  3. 3. A pilot notices blue exhaust smoke and unusually high oil consumption on a turbocharged airplane, along with normal manifold pressure indications. Which turbocharger-related failure is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

    Aircraft Systems

    • A. Overboost (pop-off) valve stuck in the closed position
    • B. Failed turbocharger center bearing/oil seals allowing engine oil to enter the induction and exhaust system
    • C. Failed absolute pressure controller reference line
    • D. Wastegate stuck in the fully closed position
    Show answer

    B. Failed turbocharger center bearing/oil seals allowing engine oil to enter the induction and exhaust system

    Blue exhaust smoke with high oil consumption but normal manifold pressure points to a turbocharger bearing/seal failure, which allows engine oil to leak past the seals into the exhaust and induction airstream where it is burned. A stuck wastegate, pop-off valve, or failed density controller would instead cause abnormal manifold pressure readings (overboost or underboost), not oil-related smoke.

  4. 4. A pilot plans to carry three passengers on a flight departing at 2100 local time. The pilot's logbook shows the last three landings to a full stop at night were made 95 days ago. Under 14 CFR 61.57, is the pilot currently qualified to carry these passengers on this flight?

    Regulations

    • A. No, because night currency requires landings within the preceding 60 days, not 90
    • B. Yes, because only 90 days of currency is required for daytime landings, not night
    • C. No, because the required three night takeoffs and landings to a full stop must have occurred within the preceding 90 days
    • D. Yes, because any night landings within the preceding 6 months satisfy the requirement
    Show answer

    C. No, because the required three night takeoffs and landings to a full stop must have occurred within the preceding 90 days

    14 CFR 61.57(b) requires three takeoffs and landings to a full stop during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise within the preceding 90 days to carry passengers at night. Since the pilot's currency lapsed 5 days ago, the pilot is not current for this flight.

  5. 5. An airplane maintains a true airspeed of 120 knots in a coordinated 30° bank turn. Using the rate of turn formula, rate (°/sec) = (1,091 × tan(bank))/TAS, what is the approximate rate of turn?

    Aerodynamics and Performance

    • A. 6.5°/second
    • B. 3.0°/second
    • C. 5.25°/second
    • D. 4.2°/second
    Show answer

    C. 5.25°/second

    Rate = (1,091 × tan(30°))/120 = (1,091 × 0.577)/120 = 629.5/120 ≈ 5.25°/second. This is slightly faster than a standard-rate turn of 3°/second.

  6. 6. A student pilot asks why extending flaps allows the airplane to fly and land at a slower speed. Which explanation is correct?

    Aerodynamics and Performance

    • A. Flaps increase the maximum coefficient of lift the wing can produce, lowering the stall speed
    • B. Flaps decrease induced drag, allowing slower flight
    • C. Flaps increase wing area only, with no effect on lift coefficient
    • D. Flaps reduce the wing's aspect ratio, increasing stall speed
    Show answer

    A. Flaps increase the maximum coefficient of lift the wing can produce, lowering the stall speed

    Flaps increase wing camber, which raises the maximum coefficient of lift (CLmax) the wing can generate before stalling. Since stall speed is inversely related to the square root of CLmax, a higher CLmax allows a lower stall speed.

  7. 7. A pilot receiving a weather briefing hears a forecast for possible thunderstorms along the route but focuses only on the portion of the briefing mentioning scattered clouds and good visibility, later telling a friend, 'The briefer said the weather looked fine.' This selective interpretation of the briefing is an example of which decision-making hazard?

    Human Factors and ADM

    • A. Resignation
    • B. Confirmation bias
    • C. Plan continuation bias
    • D. Peer pressure
    Show answer

    B. Confirmation bias

    Confirmation bias occurs when a person selectively focuses on information that supports a preexisting belief or desired outcome (wanting the weather to be good) while disregarding contradictory data, such as the thunderstorm forecast.

  8. 8. An airplane is flown in a coordinated turn at a true airspeed of 180 knots with a 50° angle of bank. Using r = V²/(11.26 × tan(bank)), what is the approximate turn radius (tan 50° ≈ 1.19)?

    Aerodynamics and Performance

    • A. 1,800 feet
    • B. 2,800 feet
    • C. 2,100 feet
    • D. 2,400 feet
    Show answer

    D. 2,400 feet

    r = 180²/(11.26 × 1.19) = 32,400/13.4 ≈ 2,418 feet, which rounds to approximately 2,400 feet.

  9. 9. An airplane flying slower than its L/D max speed requires progressively MORE power to maintain altitude as airspeed decreases further. This flight condition is known as the:

    Aerodynamics and Performance

    • A. accelerated stall regime
    • B. maneuvering speed boundary
    • C. normal command region
    • D. region of reverse command
    Show answer

    D. region of reverse command

    The region of reverse command, also called flying "behind the power curve," occurs at airspeeds below L/D max where total drag increases as speed decreases, requiring more power (not less) to maintain altitude. This is the opposite of normal flight, where reducing speed reduces required power.

  10. 10. An airplane, at a given weight and configuration, stalls at 60 KIAS at sea level. The same airplane, same weight and configuration, is flown to 10,000 feet density altitude and stalled again. What indicated stall speed should the pilot expect?

    Aerodynamics and Performance

    • A. Approximately 60 KIAS, essentially unchanged from the sea level value
    • B. Lower than 60 KIAS, because the thinner air reduces the load on the wing
    • C. Higher than 60 KIAS, because reduced air density requires more speed to generate lift
    • D. Cannot be determined without knowing the outside air temperature
    Show answer

    A. Approximately 60 KIAS, essentially unchanged from the sea level value

    Indicated airspeed is derived from dynamic pressure, which already accounts for air density. For a given weight and configuration, the wing always stalls at the same critical angle of attack and therefore the same indicated (calibrated) airspeed, regardless of altitude — although true airspeed at the stall increases with altitude.

  11. 11. An airplane's pressurization system includes a valve that automatically opens to admit outside air into the cabin whenever cabin pressure would otherwise become lower than outside atmospheric pressure, such as during a rapid descent. This valve is the?

    Aircraft Systems

    • A. Positive pressure relief (safety) valve
    • B. Cabin rate-of-climb controller
    • C. Outflow valve
    • D. Negative pressure relief valve
    Show answer

    D. Negative pressure relief valve

    The negative pressure relief valve prevents a structurally dangerous situation where outside pressure exceeds cabin pressure (which can happen during a rapid descent when the cabin can't depressurize fast enough) by letting outside air flow in. The outflow valve controls normal cabin pressure regulation, the positive pressure relief valve prevents excessive cabin pressure buildup, and the rate-of-climb controller manages the speed of cabin pressure changes, not pressure differential direction.

  12. 12. An airplane's 1G stall speed is 50 knots. During a pull-up from a dive, the pilot imposes a load factor of 2G. What is the airplane's stall speed during this maneuver?

    Aerodynamics and Performance

    • A. 70.7 knots
    • B. 57.7 knots
    • C. 100.0 knots
    • D. 61.2 knots
    Show answer

    A. 70.7 knots

    Accelerated stall speed is calculated as Vs × √n, where n is the load factor. Here, Vs = 50 × √2 = 50 × 1.414 = 70.7 knots. This shows that even in a straight pull-up (not just a turn), increased load factor raises the stall speed.

  13. 13. Compared to a float-type carburetor, which of the following is an advantage of a fuel injection system on a reciprocating engine?

    Aircraft Systems

    • A. Elimination of the need for a mixture control
    • B. Simplified engine construction requiring no fuel pump
    • C. Automatic feathering of the propeller during engine failure
    • D. Reduced susceptibility to induction icing since fuel is injected directly into the cylinders or intake ports rather than vaporized in a venturi
    Show answer

    D. Reduced susceptibility to induction icing since fuel is injected directly into the cylinders or intake ports rather than vaporized in a venturi

    Float carburetors vaporize fuel in a venturi, which cools the incoming air and can cause carburetor icing even in relatively warm, humid conditions. Fuel-injected engines meter fuel directly to each cylinder or intake port, avoiding the venturi cooling effect and greatly reducing susceptibility to induction icing.

  14. 14. An airplane is in a coordinated turn with a true airspeed of 150 knots and a 45° angle of bank. Using the turn radius formula r = V²/(11.26 × tan(bank)), what is the approximate radius of turn?

    Aerodynamics and Performance

    • A. 2,500 feet
    • B. 1,000 feet
    • C. 2,000 feet
    • D. 1,500 feet
    Show answer

    C. 2,000 feet

    r = V²/(11.26 × tan(45°)) = 150²/(11.26 × 1.0) = 22,500/11.26 ≈ 1,998 feet, which rounds to approximately 2,000 feet.

  15. 15. A mechanic is asked when an aircraft must next undergo its required annual inspection. The aircraft's last annual inspection was signed off on March 15 of last year. By what date must the next annual inspection be completed to keep the aircraft airworthy?

    Regulations

    • A. December 31 of this year
    • B. April 15 of this year
    • C. March 15 of this year
    • D. March 31 of this year
    Show answer

    D. March 31 of this year

    14 CFR 91.409(a) requires an annual inspection within the preceding 12 calendar months. A calendar month runs to the end of the month, so an inspection completed in March of last year is due by the end of March of the following year.

  16. 16. A commercial pilot is scheduled to serve as second in command (SIC) in a company airplane that is type certificated for a minimum crew of two pilots. The pilot does not hold a type rating for that airplane and has never acted as SIC in it before. According to 14 CFR 61.55, what must occur before this pilot may act as SIC?

    Regulations

    • A. The pilot must receive and log ground and flight training on that aircraft's systems and procedures, then receive a logbook endorsement of competency
    • B. The pilot must obtain a type rating in that airplane before acting as SIC
    • C. The pilot must simply log two hours of dual instruction in any multiengine airplane
    • D. No additional training is required since the pilot already holds a commercial certificate
    Show answer

    A. The pilot must receive and log ground and flight training on that aircraft's systems and procedures, then receive a logbook endorsement of competency

    14 CFR 61.55 requires a pilot who does not hold a type rating for the aircraft to receive and log ground and flight training on that specific aircraft's systems, procedures, and flight characteristics, and to obtain an endorsement in their logbook certifying they are competent to act as SIC, before serving in that role.

  17. 17. A pilot planning an IFR flight using GPS for primary navigation checks the receiver's RAIM prediction before departure. What is the purpose of this check?

    Navigation and Flight Planning

    • A. To determine the magnetic variation value being applied by the GPS unit
    • B. To verify the navigation database is current for approach procedures
    • C. To confirm the autopilot is properly coupled to the GPS receiver
    • D. To confirm sufficient satellites are available to detect a position error along the route and at the destination
    Show answer

    D. To confirm sufficient satellites are available to detect a position error along the route and at the destination

    Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) verifies that enough satellites are in view with adequate geometry to detect a faulty signal, ensuring position integrity for IFR operations along the planned route and at the destination.

  18. 18. During a preflight briefing, a low-time commercial pilot states, 'Let's just get going, we can figure out the weight and balance in the air if needed.' This statement is most characteristic of which hazardous attitude?

    Human Factors and ADM

    • A. Macho
    • B. Impulsivity
    • C. Resignation
    • D. Invulnerability
    Show answer

    B. Impulsivity

    Impulsivity is the tendency to act quickly without adequately thinking through a situation, exactly as shown by wanting to skip a required calculation and 'figure it out later.' The antidote is 'Not so fast, think first.'

  19. 19. An airplane departing from a high-elevation airport on a hot day experiences a significant increase in density altitude. Compared to a standard-day sea-level departure at the same indicated airspeed and gross weight, the airplane will require a longer takeoff roll primarily because:

    Aerodynamics and Performance

    • A. the critical angle of attack increases at higher density altitudes, delaying lift-off
    • B. higher density altitude increases air density, which requires less power to accelerate the airplane
    • C. the wing must reach the same lift-off indicated airspeed at a higher true airspeed, while the engine and propeller produce less thrust in the thinner air
    • D. indicated airspeed required for lift-off decreases as density altitude increases
    Show answer

    C. the wing must reach the same lift-off indicated airspeed at a higher true airspeed, while the engine and propeller produce less thrust in the thinner air

    Indicated airspeed for lift-off stays essentially the same because it directly reflects dynamic pressure on the wing, but at high density altitude the true airspeed needed to reach that same indicated airspeed is higher, meaning the airplane must accelerate to a greater groundspeed. Simultaneously, the thinner air reduces engine power output and propeller efficiency, both factors combining to lengthen the takeoff roll.

  20. 20. An aircraft owner wants an inspection program that spreads required inspection items across shorter, more frequent intervals to keep the aircraft continuously airworthy, rather than performing one large annual inspection. Which inspection program should the owner request from the FAA?

    Regulations

    • A. Airworthiness directive compliance program
    • B. Progressive inspection program
    • C. Standard annual inspection
    • D. 100-hour inspection program
    Show answer

    B. Progressive inspection program

    A progressive inspection program, authorized under 14 CFR 91.409(d), allows an owner or operator to divide the inspection requirements into smaller segments performed at shorter, more frequent intervals so that the entire aircraft is inspected progressively, avoiding the need for one lengthy annual inspection.

  21. 21. An air taxi aircraft's last required 100-hour inspection was completed at a recorded tachometer time of 1,200.0 hours, making the next 100-hour inspection due at 1,300.0 hours. The aircraft is now at 1,301.5 hours, and the operator wants to fly it 3.5 hours to reach a maintenance facility that can perform the inspection. Is this flight permitted, and when is the next 100-hour inspection due?

    Regulations

    • A. Permitted; the flight is within the 10-hour overflight allowance, and the next inspection is due at 1,400.0 hours
    • B. Permitted; the flight is within the 10-hour allowance, and the next inspection is due at 1,405.0 hours
    • C. Not permitted because the aircraft has exceeded the 100-hour limit by more than 1 hour
    • D. Not permitted; the aircraft is already overdue and must not be flown
    Show answer

    A. Permitted; the flight is within the 10-hour overflight allowance, and the next inspection is due at 1,400.0 hours

    14 CFR 91.409(c) allows the 100-hour limit to be exceeded by not more than 10 hours to fly the aircraft to a place where the inspection can be done. Here, the aircraft is 1.5 hours over at departure, and the 3.5-hour flight brings total overflight to 5.0 hours (1,301.5+3.5=1,305.0), which is within the 10-hour allowance. Importantly, the excess time is counted toward the next 100 hours, so the next inspection remains due at the original due date plus 100 hours (1,300.0+100=1,400.0), not based on the point at which the aircraft actually landed.

  22. 22. A mechanic completes an airworthiness directive (AD) compliance inspection and makes the appropriate logbook entry. Who bears ultimate responsibility for ensuring that all applicable airworthiness directives are complied with on the aircraft?

    Regulations

    • A. The FAA Flight Standards District Office having jurisdiction over the aircraft's base airport
    • B. The mechanic who performs the inspection and signs the maintenance release
    • C. The pilot in command for each individual flight
    • D. The owner or operator of the aircraft
    Show answer

    D. The owner or operator of the aircraft

    14 CFR 91.403(a) places primary responsibility for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with applicable airworthiness directives, on the owner or operator. Mechanics perform and certify the work, but the regulatory duty to ensure compliance rests with the owner/operator.

  23. 23. A pilot enters an unintentional spin and must recover using the standard control inputs. Which sequence correctly follows the recommended spin recovery procedure?

    Aerodynamics and Performance

    • A. Elevator forward, rudder opposite rotation, ailerons neutral, power idle
    • B. Ailerons into the spin, power full, rudder neutral, elevator neutral
    • C. Rudder neutral, power idle, ailerons opposite rotation, elevator aft
    • D. Power idle, ailerons neutral, rudder full opposite rotation, elevator forward to break the stall
    Show answer

    D. Power idle, ailerons neutral, rudder full opposite rotation, elevator forward to break the stall

    The standard spin recovery procedure (often remembered as PARE) is: Power to idle, Ailerons neutral, Rudder applied opposite the direction of rotation, and Elevator moved forward to reduce angle of attack and break the stall, followed by neutralizing rudder and gently recovering from the dive.

  24. 24. A commercial pilot is en route to a business meeting and encounters worsening weather ahead. Despite briefed alternates and a personal minimum to divert if visibility drops below 3 miles, the pilot presses on because 'we're already most of the way there' and the original plan called for landing at the destination. This behavior best illustrates which hazard to sound decision making?

    Human Factors and ADM

    • A. Confirmation bias
    • B. Task saturation
    • C. Resignation hazardous attitude
    • D. Plan continuation bias
    Show answer

    D. Plan continuation bias

    Plan continuation bias (often called 'get-there-itis') is the tendency to continue with an original plan despite changing conditions that should trigger a new decision, such as diverting when a personal minimum is exceeded.

  25. 25. A sectional chart shows an isogonic line indicating 8° east variation along a planned route. The pilot's true course, measured with a plotter, is 250°. What magnetic course should the pilot use before applying compass deviation?

    Navigation and Flight Planning

    • A. 242°
    • B. 258°
    • C. 233°
    • D. 250°
    Show answer

    A. 242°

    East variation is subtracted from true course to get magnetic course: 250° − 8° = 242°. The memory aid 'East is least' applies when converting from true to magnetic.

FAA Commercial Pilot Airplane (CAX) flashcards

Tap a card to flip it. 201 flashcards in the full deck.

  • Constant-Speed Propeller Governor

    Flip card

    A flyweight-actuated device that meters engine oil pressure to the propeller hub to automatically change blade pitch and hold a selected RPM.

    • Flyweights sense RPM changes
    • Oil pressure changes blade angle
    • Maintains selected RPM despite airspeed/power changes
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  • Limit Load Factor

    Flip card

    The maximum load factor an aircraft structure can withstand without permanent deformation; loads below this value are considered safe.

    • Limit load factor: safe design boundary
    • Ultimate load factor ≈ 1.5× limit load factor (failure point)
    • Gust loads in turbulence must be compared to limit load factor
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  • Turbocharger Bearing/Seal Failure

    Flip card

    Wear or failure of the turbocharger's center bearing and oil seals allows engine oil to leak into the exhaust and induction system, producing blue smoke and high oil consumption despite normal manifold pressure.

    • Symptom: blue smoke plus high oil consumption
    • Manifold pressure often remains normal
    • Different from wastegate/pop-off failures, which cause pressure anomalies
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  • Night Passenger Currency

    Flip card

    14 CFR 61.57(b) requires 3 takeoffs and landings to a full stop at night within the preceding 90 days to carry passengers during the night period.

    • Night period defined as 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
    • Full-stop landings are required, not touch-and-go, for this specific currency.
    • Separate from the 61.57(a) day currency requiring only 3 takeoffs/landings in any 90 days (may include touch-and-go).
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  • Rate of Turn Calculation

    Flip card

    Rate of turn in degrees per second is found using rate = (1,091 × tan(bank))/TAS, showing that rate increases with steeper bank and decreases with higher airspeed.

    • Standard rate turn = 3°/second (360° in 2 minutes)
    • Higher TAS requires steeper bank for same rate
    • Formula constant 1,091 derives from turn geometry
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  • Flaps and CLmax

    Flip card

    Flaps increase wing camber and CLmax, allowing the airplane to generate the same lift at a lower airspeed, thus reducing stall speed.

    • Stall speed is inversely proportional to the square root of CLmax.
    • Flaps also increase drag, aiding steeper approach angles.
    • Some flap types increase wing area as well as camber.
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  • Confirmation Bias

    Flip card

    The tendency to notice, focus on, and remember information that confirms one's preexisting beliefs or desires while disregarding contradictory evidence.

    • Can cause pilots to underweight hazardous weather or mechanical clues
    • Often paired with 'wishful thinking' about flight conditions
    • Countered by deliberately seeking disconfirming information before deciding
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  • Turn Radius at High TAS

    Flip card

    Because turn radius is proportional to the square of true airspeed, even modest speed increases significantly enlarge the turn radius at a constant bank angle.

    • r = V²/(11.26 × tan(bank))
    • Radius grows with the square of TAS
    • Steeper bank reduces radius for the same speed
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  • Region of Reverse Command

    Flip card

    The flight regime at airspeeds slower than L/D max where additional power is required to maintain altitude as airspeed decreases, due to rapidly increasing induced drag.

    • Also called 'behind the power curve'
    • Occurs below L/D max speed
    • Common during slow approaches and landings
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  • Stall Speed and Altitude (IAS vs TAS)

    Flip card

    Indicated stall speed remains essentially constant with altitude for a given weight/configuration because it reflects dynamic pressure; true stall speed increases with altitude due to decreasing air density.

    • Critical AOA is reached at the same IAS regardless of altitude
    • TAS at stall increases with altitude (thinner air)
    • Pilots reference IAS/CAS for stall margins, not TAS
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  • Negative Pressure Relief Valve

    Flip card

    A safety valve that opens to let outside air into the cabin whenever cabin pressure drops below outside pressure, preventing structural damage.

    • Protects against inward-collapsing loads on the fuselage
    • Activates typically during rapid descents
    • Works opposite to the positive pressure relief valve
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  • Accelerated Stall Speed (Pull-Up)

    Flip card

    Stall speed increases with the square root of load factor during any maneuver imposing G-forces, not just turns.

    • Formula: Vs(accelerated) = Vs(1G) × √n
    • Applies to pull-ups, turns, and turbulence
    • Higher G-load always raises the stall speed
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  • Fuel Injection vs. Carburetor

    Flip card

    Fuel injection meters fuel directly into the cylinders or intake ports, avoiding the carburetor's venturi cooling effect and reducing susceptibility to induction icing.

    • No venturi vaporization cooling
    • Less prone to carburetor icing
    • Still uses fuel pumps and mixture control
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  • Turn Radius Calculation

    Flip card

    Turn radius depends on the square of true airspeed and inversely on the tangent of the bank angle: r = V²/(11.26 × tan(bank)).

    • Radius increases with the square of TAS
    • Steeper bank angle decreases radius
    • Formula uses TAS in knots, radius in feet
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  • Annual Inspection Timing

    Flip card

    Under 14 CFR 91.409(a)(1), most aircraft must have an annual inspection within the preceding 12 calendar months to remain airworthy.

    • Calendar month counting runs to the last day of the month.
    • Applies to all aircraft except those inspected under an approved progressive or other program.
    • Failure to complete on time grounds the aircraft until inspected.
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  • SIC Qualification (61.55)

    Flip card

    A pilot without a type rating must complete aircraft-specific ground and flight training and receive a logbook endorsement before serving as SIC on a type-certificated aircraft requiring two pilots.

    • Applies to aircraft requiring more than one pilot
    • Training must cover aircraft systems and procedures
    • Endorsement of competency required in logbook
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  • RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring)

    Flip card

    RAIM is a GPS receiver function that uses redundant satellite signals to detect and, in some units, exclude a faulty satellite, ensuring position integrity for IFR navigation.

    • Requires at least 5 satellites for fault detection
    • RAIM prediction should be checked before an IFR GPS flight
    • A RAIM outage may require an alternate navigation method or delayed departure
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  • Impulsivity Hazardous Attitude

    Flip card

    A hazardous attitude marked by the tendency to act quickly without considering the safest alternative or gathering adequate information.

    • Antidote: 'Not so fast, think first'
    • Common in pilots who skip checklists or planning steps
    • One of the five classic hazardous attitudes
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  • Density Altitude and Takeoff Performance

    Flip card

    High density altitude reduces air density, requiring higher true airspeed to achieve the same indicated airspeed for lift-off, while simultaneously reducing engine power and propeller efficiency, both lengthening takeoff distance.

    • IAS for lift-off stays roughly constant
    • TAS needed increases with density altitude
    • Engine power and prop efficiency both decrease in thin air
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  • Progressive Inspection Program

    Flip card

    An FAA-approved alternative under 91.409(d) that divides inspection tasks into smaller segments performed at shorter, recurring intervals to maintain continuous airworthiness.

    • Approved under 91.409(d)
    • Requires an approved inspection program
    • Avoids grounding aircraft for one large annual inspection
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  • 100-Hour Overflight Allowance

    Flip card

    14 CFR 91.409(c) permits exceeding the 100-hour inspection limit by up to 10 hours to reach a place of inspection, but the excess counts toward the next 100 hours due.

    • Applies only when flying to a maintenance facility for the inspection.
    • Maximum overflight allowed is 10 hours total.
    • Next inspection is still due 100 hours after the original due point, not the actual landing time.
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  • AD Compliance Responsibility

    Flip card

    14 CFR 91.403(a) makes the owner or operator responsible for maintaining the aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with all applicable ADs.

    • ADs are mandatory unless an Alternative Method of Compliance (AMOC) is approved.
    • Owner/operator responsibility differs from the mechanic's role of performing and certifying the work.
    • PIC must verify airworthiness before flight but is not the party ultimately responsible for AD tracking.
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  • PARE Spin Recovery

    Flip card

    Standard spin recovery sequence: Power idle, Ailerons neutral, Rudder opposite rotation, Elevator forward to break the stall.

    • Ailerons neutral prevents aggravating the spin via adverse yaw.
    • Rudder must be applied opposite the spin direction, not aileron.
    • Elevator forward reduces AOA below critical to stop autorotation.
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  • Plan Continuation Bias

    Flip card

    The tendency to continue an original plan of action even when circumstances suggest changing course, often driven by a desire to reach the destination.

    • Also called 'get-there-itis'
    • Increases with sunk time/cost invested in the flight
    • Countered by pre-set personal minimums and willingness to divert
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