1. A pilot is briefed that a fast-moving cold front will cross the route of flight within the hour. Which of the following weather characteristics should the pilot expect during the frontal passage?
Weather
A.Widespread advection fog forming ahead of the front with little change in wind direction
B.Persistent low stratus clouds and drizzle for an extended period before slow clearing
C.A narrow band of showery precipitation, possible thunderstorms, and rapid clearing after passage
D.A wide band of steady, light precipitation lasting several hours with gradually lowering ceilings
Show answerAnswer
C. A narrow band of showery precipitation, possible thunderstorms, and rapid clearing after passage
Fast-moving cold fronts produce a narrow band of intense, showery weather including possible thunderstorms and gusty winds, but clearing occurs rapidly after passage due to the steep frontal slope and quick movement. Warm fronts, in contrast, typically produce widespread stratiform clouds and steady precipitation over a broader area for a longer duration ahead of the front.
2. While reviewing an instrument approach procedure chart, a pilot notices a black triangle containing a white 'T' printed in the notes area near the top of the chart. What does this symbol indicate?
IFR Procedures and Approaches
A.Terrain in the immediate vicinity requires the use of TAWS during approach
B.The airport requires a special VFR clearance for all departures
C.The runway has a displaced threshold that affects landing distance
D.The airport has nonstandard takeoff minimums and/or a published obstacle departure procedure (ODP) that should be checked before departure
Show answerAnswer
D. The airport has nonstandard takeoff minimums and/or a published obstacle departure procedure (ODP) that should be checked before departure
The black triangle with a white 'T' alerts pilots that the airport has nonstandard takeoff minimums, an ODP, or both, and directs them to consult the Takeoff Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures section of the terminal procedures publication.
3. A pilot is briefed that winds of 35 knots are forecast to blow perpendicular to a mountain ridge with a stable air mass in place, and standing lenticular altocumulus clouds are reported downwind of the ridge. What should the pilot expect?
Weather
A.Widespread advection fog forming over the ridge
B.Mountain wave turbulence, potentially severe, with strong up- and downdrafts
C.Smooth, laminar airflow with no significant turbulence hazard
D.A temperature inversion that will prevent any turbulence from developing
Show answerAnswer
B. Mountain wave turbulence, potentially severe, with strong up- and downdrafts
Strong wind flow perpendicular to a mountain ridge in a stable air mass produces mountain wave activity downwind of the terrain. Standing lenticular clouds are a visual indicator of this wave pattern, which can produce severe turbulence, strong up/downdrafts, and possible rotor turbulence at lower altitudes.
4. On a standard airspeed indicator, the upper limit of the green arc (transitioning into the yellow arc) represents which airspeed?
Instruments and Systems
A.VNE, never-exceed speed
B.VNO, maximum structural cruising speed
C.VS1, stalling speed in clean configuration
D.VFE, maximum flap-extended speed
Show answerAnswer
B. VNO, maximum structural cruising speed
The top of the green arc marks VNO, the maximum structural cruising speed — operation above this speed (into the yellow caution arc) is permitted only in smooth air. VNE is marked by the red line at the top of the yellow arc, and VFE is the top of the white arc.
5. While briefing a student on ILS approach components, a CFII asks which marker beacon is identified by a blue light and a continuous series of low-pitched (400 Hz) dashes as the aircraft crosses it?
Instruments and Systems
A.Back Course Marker
B.Inner Marker
C.Middle Marker
D.Outer Marker
Show answerAnswer
D. Outer Marker
The Outer Marker is identified by a blue cockpit light and a continuous series of low-pitched dashes at 400 Hz, and it marks the point where the glide slope is normally intercepted for final approach. The Middle Marker uses amber light with alternating dot-dashes at 1300 Hz, and the Inner Marker uses white light with continuous dots at 3000 Hz.
6. An approach chart authorizes a side-step maneuver from an ILS approach to Runway 27L to land on parallel Runway 27R, which is 900 feet to the right. Which statement correctly describes this procedure?
IFR Procedures and Approaches
A.Side-step maneuvers are only authorized between runways separated by more than 1,200 feet
B.The pilot flies the ILS to 27L to the DA/MDA, then visually maneuvers to align with and land on 27R without descending below the circling minimums applicable to the side-step
C.The side-step maneuver requires the pilot to execute a full procedure turn before landing on the parallel runway
D.The pilot must fly a completely separate instrument approach procedure published specifically for Runway 27R
Show answerAnswer
B. The pilot flies the ILS to 27L to the DA/MDA, then visually maneuvers to align with and land on 27R without descending below the circling minimums applicable to the side-step
A side-step maneuver allows a pilot to fly an instrument approach to one runway and, upon reaching the specified minimums with the parallel runway environment in sight, visually maneuver to land on the parallel runway. It is authorized for runways separated by 1,200 feet or less. Straight-in minimums for the approach runway are normally used but adjusted (usually higher) to account for the side-step maneuver, and no separate approach procedure or procedure turn to the parallel runway is required.
7. A pilot flying through a layer of stratiform clouds at -8°C notices ice forming on the wing leading edges. The ice is rough, milky white, and opaque. Which type of icing is this, and why does it form this way in this cloud type?
Weather
A.Rime ice, because small supercooled droplets freeze instantly on contact
B.Frost, because sublimation occurs on the cold metal surface
C.Mixed ice, because both large and small droplets are present
D.Clear ice, because large supercooled droplets spread before freezing
Show answerAnswer
A. Rime ice, because small supercooled droplets freeze instantly on contact
Stratiform clouds typically contain small supercooled water droplets. These droplets freeze almost instantly upon striking the aircraft surface, trapping air and creating a rough, opaque, milky-white deposit known as rime ice.
8. During a training flight, Pilot A wears a view-limiting device and flies solely by reference to instruments while Pilot B, a qualified safety pilot occupying the other control seat, watches for traffic. Which statement correctly describes how each pilot may log this flight time under 14 CFR 61.51(g)?
Instrument Regulations
A.Both pilots may log the time as simulated instrument time
B.Only Pilot A may log simulated instrument time; Pilot B may log pilot-in-command time but not instrument time
C.Neither pilot may log any time because no IFR clearance was filed
D.Only Pilot B may log the time since acting as safety pilot
Show answerAnswer
B. Only Pilot A may log simulated instrument time; Pilot B may log pilot-in-command time but not instrument time
Under 61.51(g), simulated instrument time may only be logged by the pilot who is actually flying solely by reference to instruments (Pilot A). Pilot B, as safety pilot, may log pilot-in-command time (since they are required crew and often act as PIC), but cannot log instrument time because they are not flying by reference to instruments—they are looking outside for traffic.
9. An aircraft equipped with a glass cockpit primary flight display (PFD) and multi-function display (MFD) experiences a PFD failure while in IMC. What is the pilot's appropriate immediate action?
Instruments and Systems
A.Disregard the failure since the MFD cannot display primary flight data
B.Switch to the standby vacuum system to restore the PFD
C.Declare an emergency and descend immediately below the clouds
D.Select the reversionary (backup) mode to display flight instruments on the MFD
Show answerAnswer
D. Select the reversionary (backup) mode to display flight instruments on the MFD
Most integrated glass cockpit systems include a reversionary mode that allows the MFD to display essential flight instrumentation (attitude, airspeed, altitude, heading) if the PFD fails, maintaining situational awareness without needing to descend or declare an emergency solely for this failure.
10. A pilot on an IFR flight plan in VMC requests and receives an ATC clearance to 'maintain VFR-on-top.' Which statement correctly describes the pilot's responsibilities under this clearance?
Instrument Regulations
A.ATC assigns a specific hard altitude that must be flown regardless of cloud tops.
B.Accepting the clearance automatically cancels the IFR flight plan.
C.The pilot must select a cruising altitude appropriate to the direction of flight per 91.159 and comply with VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements.
D.The clearance is only valid within Class G airspace where ATC has no jurisdiction.
Show answerAnswer
C. The pilot must select a cruising altitude appropriate to the direction of flight per 91.159 and comply with VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements.
A VFR-on-top clearance keeps the aircraft on its IFR flight plan while allowing the pilot to select an altitude appropriate for the direction of flight under 91.159, and the pilot must remain clear of clouds and meet VFR visibility minimums for the altitude flown.
11. A TERPS evaluation of a proposed instrument approach determines that the final approach course is offset 35 degrees from the extended runway centerline. According to the criteria for publishing landing minimums, what type of minimums will be published for that runway?
IFR Procedures and Approaches
A.Circling minimums only, since the offset exceeds the maximum allowed for straight-in minimums
B.Straight-in minimums only, since the offset is within acceptable limits
C.LNAV minimums only, since course offset does not affect nonprecision approach criteria
D.Both straight-in and circling minimums, with a note restricting straight-in use to daytime only
Show answerAnswer
A. Circling minimums only, since the offset exceeds the maximum allowed for straight-in minimums
TERPS criteria limit the maximum allowable offset between the final approach course and the extended runway centerline to 30 degrees for straight-in minimums to be published. Since the offset here is 35 degrees, only circling minimums may be published for that runway.
12. A pilot planning a flight into terrain rising gradually from the coast is briefed that moist, stable air is forecast to flow onshore and up the sloping terrain overnight. No front is present. What weather phenomenon should the pilot expect, and why does it form?
Weather
A.Upslope fog, from moist stable air cooling adiabatically as it rises over terrain
B.Radiation fog, from nighttime terrestrial cooling
C.Ground fog, from temperature inversion trapping surface moisture
D.Steam fog, from cold air passing over warmer ground
Show answerAnswer
A. Upslope fog, from moist stable air cooling adiabatically as it rises over terrain
Upslope fog forms when moist, stable air is forced to rise over sloping terrain, cooling adiabatically until it reaches saturation. This is common on the eastern slopes of the Rocky Mountains and does not require a front, clear skies, or calm winds like radiation fog does.
13. A pilot is flying a published DME arc as part of an instrument approach. To smoothly roll out on the inbound radial after completing the arc, the pilot should begin the turn how many degrees before reaching the radial that defines the inbound course?
IFR Procedures and Approaches
A.10 degrees (lead radial)
B.20 degrees (lead radial)
C.30 degrees (lead radial)
D.5 degrees (lead radial)
Show answerAnswer
A. 10 degrees (lead radial)
Standard technique for DME arcs is to lead the turn onto the inbound course by approximately 10 degrees prior to reaching the inbound radial, allowing the aircraft to roll out on course rather than overshoot it.
14. A CFII has an instrument student fly the same VOR holding entry repeatedly across four separate lessons, believing that repeated correct practice strengthens the neural pathway for the skill. Which law of learning is the CFII applying?
Instructional Techniques
A.Law of Recency
B.Law of Effect
C.Law of Readiness
D.Law of Exercise
Show answerAnswer
D. Law of Exercise
The Law of Exercise holds that repetition of a response strengthens the connection and makes the skill more reliable, which is exactly why the CFII has the student practice the holding entry across multiple lessons.
15. A pilot is being vectored for a Surveillance (ASR) approach at an airport without a control tower. Which statement correctly describes this type of radar approach?
Instrument Regulations
A.ASR provides azimuth (course) guidance only, and the pilot descends to an MDA, with recommended altitudes available at each mile on request.
B.ASR provides both azimuth and glidepath guidance, allowing descent to a decision height (DH).
C.ASR requires the aircraft to be equipped with airborne radar to receive glidepath information.
D.ASR approaches may only be flown when a precision approach procedure is also available at the same airport.
Show answerAnswer
A. ASR provides azimuth (course) guidance only, and the pilot descends to an MDA, with recommended altitudes available at each mile on request.
An Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR) approach is a nonprecision approach in which the controller provides azimuth guidance only; the pilot descends to a published MDA and, if requested, the controller provides recommended altitudes at each mile on final. A PAR (Precision Approach Radar), by contrast, provides both azimuth and glidepath guidance to a DH.
16. While on an IFR flight plan in VMC near the destination, ATC advises a pilot 'Report the airport in sight' and subsequently clears the flight for a visual approach. Which condition must be met before ATC can issue this clearance?
Instrument Regulations
A.The pilot must have the airport or a preceding aircraft to follow in sight, and the reported ceiling and visibility must meet basic VFR minimums
B.The pilot must first fly the full published instrument approach procedure to the airport
C.ATC may only issue a visual approach clearance at a towered airport with an operating control tower
D.The pilot must cancel IFR before receiving the clearance
Show answerAnswer
A. The pilot must have the airport or a preceding aircraft to follow in sight, and the reported ceiling and visibility must meet basic VFR minimums
A visual approach clearance requires the pilot to have either the airport or a preceding aircraft to be followed in sight, and requires that reported weather conditions be at or above basic VFR minimums for the approach control facility to initiate the clearance. It does not require canceling IFR, does not require an operating tower, and replaces rather than requires flying the full published procedure.
17. An approach chart depicts a procedure turn barb on the initial approach course, but the feeder route from a nearby VOR is labeled 'NoPT'. A pilot is being vectored by ATC to intercept the final approach course outside the FAF. Under these circumstances, is the procedure turn required?
IFR Procedures and Approaches
A.Yes, the procedure turn barb depicted on the chart always overrides vectoring instructions
B.No, because the pilot is receiving radar vectors to the final approach course
C.No, but only if the aircraft is being flown by an autopilot coupled to the localizer
D.Yes, unless the pilot specifically requests to omit it from ATC
Show answerAnswer
B. No, because the pilot is receiving radar vectors to the final approach course
A procedure turn is not required when the pilot is being radar vectored to the final approach course, when flying a NoPT route, when conducting a timed approach, or when the procedure specifies 'NoPT.' ATC vectoring to intercept the final approach course inherently accomplishes the course reversal function, making the procedure turn unnecessary regardless of the barb depicted for other transitions.
18. An instrument student who learned to rely heavily on outside visual references during VFR training has difficulty trusting the instruments and keeps glancing outside during early instrument lessons, degrading scan performance. This interference of a previously learned habit with new learning is an example of:
Instructional Techniques
A.Overlearning
B.Positive transfer of learning
C.Law of Recency
D.Negative transfer of learning
Show answerAnswer
D. Negative transfer of learning
Negative transfer occurs when a previously learned habit or skill interferes with the acquisition of a new skill, exactly as the VFR habit of looking outside interferes with developing a proper instrument scan.
19. At a mountain valley airport on a clear, calm night, an ATIS reports gusty surface winds even though winds aloft are light. A CFII explains this is caused by cold, dense air pooling on higher terrain and flowing downhill into the valley under gravity. What is this phenomenon called?
Weather
A.Anabatic wind
B.Katabatic (drainage) wind
C.Santa Ana wind
D.Chinook wind
Show answerAnswer
B. Katabatic (drainage) wind
A katabatic (drainage) wind occurs at night when air near elevated terrain cools and becomes denser than the surrounding air, causing it to flow downslope into valleys under the influence of gravity. This can produce locally gusty surface winds in calm upper-level conditions.
20. A pilot is planning a nonprecision approach at an airport listed on the FAA Cold Temperature Restricted Airports list. The surface temperature is -30°C, at or below the airport's published minimum temperature. The published FAF crossing altitude is 2,500 feet MSL, and the applicable cold-temperature correction for that height above the airport is +260 feet. What corrected minimum altitude should the pilot use at the FAF?
IFR Procedures and Approaches
A.3,000 feet MSL
B.2,500 feet MSL
C.2,240 feet MSL
D.2,760 feet MSL
Show answerAnswer
D. 2,760 feet MSL
In extreme cold, a barometric altimeter reads higher than true altitude, so a correction must be added to the charted altitude to ensure adequate obstacle clearance. 2,500 ft + 260 ft correction = 2,760 feet MSL.
21. A CFII is preparing to endorse a student's logbook so the student may take the FAA instrument rating knowledge test. What must the instructor certify before making this endorsement, per 14 CFR 61.65(a) and (b)?
Instrument Regulations
A.That the student has received ground training in the required aeronautical knowledge areas and is prepared for the test.
B.That the student holds a current medical certificate valid for at least one year.
C.That the student has logged at least 40 hours of actual or simulated instrument time.
D.That the student has completed the instrument rating practical test flight portions.
Show answerAnswer
A. That the student has received ground training in the required aeronautical knowledge areas and is prepared for the test.
Before an applicant may take the instrument rating knowledge test, 61.65(a)/(b) requires the applicant to have received and logged ground training from an authorized instructor, or a home-study course, covering the aeronautical knowledge areas, and the instructor must certify the applicant is prepared for the test.
22. After rolling out of a steep 360° turn, a CFII notes that the attitude indicator briefly shows a slight climb and bank that were not commanded. This momentary error is most likely the result of
D.gyroscopic precession from gimbal friction during the turn
Show answerAnswer
D. gyroscopic precession from gimbal friction during the turn
The attitude indicator's gyro is subject to small precession errors caused by friction in the gimbals, which become most noticeable following turns, particularly steep turns of 180° or more. These errors are normal, self-correct within a minute or so via the erecting mechanism, and do not indicate a malfunction.
23. A CFII observes that after 20 minutes of straight-and-level flight, the vacuum-driven heading indicator has drifted 6° from the magnetic compass reading, even though the aircraft flew a constant heading the entire time. What is the most accurate explanation and correct corrective action?
Instruments and Systems
A.This indicates the compass, not the heading indicator, is in error and requires compass swing
B.This indicates a failing vacuum pump; the flight should be discontinued immediately
C.This is normal gyroscopic precession from internal friction; the pilot should reset the heading indicator to the compass in straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight
D.This is caused by the Coriolis effect and can only be corrected by changing latitude
Show answerAnswer
C. This is normal gyroscopic precession from internal friction; the pilot should reset the heading indicator to the compass in straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight
Vacuum-driven heading indicators normally precess a few degrees over time due to internal bearing friction and are designed to be periodically reset to the magnetic compass during stabilized, unaccelerated flight. A drift of this magnitude over 20 minutes is within the expected range for gyro precession error, not a system failure requiring termination of flight.
24. A dispatcher is evaluating whether an alternate airport is required for a flight, and if so, what alternate minimums apply. The alternate airport has only a nonprecision approach published, with a ceiling forecast of 900 feet and visibility of 2 statute miles at the ETA. Using the standard alternate minimums (the '1-2-3' rule reference), can this airport be filed as the alternate?
IFR Procedures and Approaches
A.No, because standard alternate minimums for a nonprecision approach require at least 800-2, and this exceeds that, so it can be filed
B.Yes, because forecast conditions of 900-2 meet or exceed the standard nonprecision alternate minimums of 800-2
C.Yes, but only if the airport also has a precision approach available as a backup
D.No, because only airports with precision approaches may ever be filed as alternates
Show answerAnswer
B. Yes, because forecast conditions of 900-2 meet or exceed the standard nonprecision alternate minimums of 800-2
Standard alternate minimums under 14 CFR 91.169 are 600-2 for a precision approach and 800-2 for a nonprecision approach, unless the approach chart specifies different alternate minimums. A forecast of 900 feet ceiling and 2 SM visibility meets and exceeds the standard nonprecision alternate minimum of 800-2, so the airport qualifies as a legal alternate.
25. A pilot flying an ILS approach reaches decision height and has the approach light system in sight, but cannot distinctly identify the red terminating bars or red side row bars. According to 14 CFR 91.175, what is the pilot required to do?
IFR Procedures and Approaches
A.Descend no lower than 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation unless further required visual references become distinctly visible
B.Continue descent to touchdown since the approach lights are visible
C.Immediately execute a missed approach regardless of further visual contact
D.Descend to 50 feet above touchdown zone elevation and level off there
Show answerAnswer
A. Descend no lower than 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation unless further required visual references become distinctly visible
Under 91.175(c)(3), sighting the approach light system alone allows descent to no lower than 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation; further descent below that point requires distinct visibility of the red terminating bars or red side row bars (or other qualifying visual references such as the runway itself).
Fast-moving cold fronts produce a narrow band of intense, showery precipitation, possible thunderstorms, and gusty winds, with rapid clearing after passage due to the steep frontal slope.
Steep slope leads to narrow band of severe weather
A published procedure providing obstacle clearance guidance for departures, identified by a black triangle with a white 'T' on approach charts, found in the Takeoff Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures section.
Indicates nonstandard takeoff minimums and/or an ODP exists
May be textual only or depicted graphically
Not mandatory unless assigned by ATC as part of a clearance, but recommended for obstacle clearance
Mountain wave turbulence forms when strong winds blow perpendicular to a mountain ridge in a stable air mass, creating oscillating wave patterns downwind that can produce severe turbulence and strong vertical currents.
Requires strong wind (often >25kt) roughly perpendicular to the ridge
Occurs in stable air masses
Standing lenticular clouds and rotor clouds are visual indicators
Color-coded arcs on the airspeed indicator denote operating speed ranges: white (flap range), green (normal), yellow (caution), and a red line (never-exceed).
Green arc top = VNO (max structural cruising speed)
Ground-based transmitters along the ILS course that provide distinctive lights and audio tones in the cockpit to identify specific points along the approach.
Outer Marker: blue light, 400 Hz continuous dashes
An instrument procedure where a pilot flies an approach to one runway and, upon reaching minimums with the parallel runway in sight, visually maneuvers to land on a parallel runway spaced 1,200 feet or less from the approach runway.
Authorized for parallel runways 1,200 ft or less apart
Uses adjusted (often higher) minimums published on the chart
No separate IAP or procedure turn needed for the parallel runway
Simulated instrument time may only be logged by the pilot flying solely by reference to instruments under a view-limiting device; a safety pilot may log PIC time but not instrument time unless also flying by instrument reference.
Only the pilot under the hood logs simulated instrument time
Safety pilot may log PIC time as required crewmember
Actual instrument time requires flight solely by reference to instruments due to weather
A backup display mode that allows the multi-function display (MFD) to present primary flight instrument data if the primary flight display (PFD) fails.
Activated automatically or manually via a reversion switch
Combines attitude, airspeed, altitude, and heading data on the MFD
Distinct from standby (backup) instruments, which are separate physical gauges
TERPS criteria require the final approach course to be within 30 degrees of the extended runway centerline (and meet descent gradient limits) for straight-in minimums to be published; otherwise only circling minimums are published.
Maximum course offset for straight-in minimums is 30 degrees
Descent gradient must also not exceed established limits
Exceeding these limits results in circling-only minimums for that runway
The technique of beginning the turn onto the inbound course approximately 10 degrees prior to reaching the defining radial while flying a DME arc, to compensate for turn radius.
ATC may clear an IFR flight for a visual approach when the pilot reports the airport or preceding traffic in sight and weather conditions support visual maneuvering, allowing expedited arrival while remaining on the IFR flight plan.
Requires airport or preceding aircraft in sight
Weather must support safe visual maneuvering to the runway
Aircraft remains on the IFR flight plan during the approach
A course reversal (procedure turn) is not required when the aircraft is radar vectored to the final approach course, when on a route labeled NoPT, when conducting a timed approach from a holding fix, or when cleared for a straight-in approach.
A wind caused by cold, dense air flowing downhill from higher terrain into valleys under gravity, typically occurring at night with radiational cooling.
Opposite of anabatic (upslope, daytime) winds
Common in mountainous terrain on clear, calm nights
Can cause locally strong, gusty surface winds despite light winds aloft
At or below an airport's published minimum temperature, a barometric altimeter over-reads true altitude, requiring pilots to add a correction to published minimum altitudes to maintain obstacle clearance.
Cold temperature restricted airports are listed with a minimum temperature threshold
Correction values increase with height above the airport and colder temperatures
Correction is added to the charted altitude, not subtracted
Under 61.65(a)-(b), an applicant must receive ground training or complete a home-study course on required knowledge areas, with instructor certification of preparedness, before taking the knowledge test.
Applicant must hold or be concurrently earning a private pilot certificate
Ground training or home-study course must cover required knowledge areas
Instructor endorsement certifies the applicant is prepared for the knowledge test
Friction within the gimbals of the attitude indicator gyro produces small, temporary pitch and bank errors after turns, which self-correct through the erecting mechanism.
Most noticeable after turns greater than 180°
Self-corrects within about 1 minute
Caused by gimbal friction precession, not instrument failure
The gradual drift of a vacuum or electric heading indicator caused by internal gyro friction, requiring periodic realignment with the magnetic compass.
Normal drift is a few degrees per 15-20 minutes
Reset only during straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight
Excessive or rapid drift may indicate instrument or vacuum system malfunction
When an alternate airport's approach chart does not list specific alternate minimums, standard minimums apply: 600-2 for a precision approach and 800-2 for a nonprecision approach, based on forecast conditions at ETA.
600-2 = precision approach standard alternate minimum
800-2 = nonprecision approach standard alternate minimum
Applies only if chart doesn't list 'NA' or other specific minimums
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