National Real Estate Exam (PSI)FinancingHard

A seller has an existing mortgage with a $150,000 balance at 5% interest. To finance the sale, the seller creates a wraparound mortgage for $200,000 at 7% interest, continuing to make payments on the original loan while collecting the buyer's payments on the full $200,000 balance. What is the primary financial benefit to the seller in this arrangement?

  1. AThe seller no longer owes payments on the underlying loan
  2. BThe seller profits from the interest rate spread between the wrapped loans
  3. CThe seller eliminates any risk from the due-on-sale clause
  4. DThe buyer automatically assumes the original 5% loan
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B. The seller profits from the interest rate spread between the wrapped loans

In a wraparound mortgage, the seller continues paying the lower-rate underlying loan (5%) while collecting payments from the buyer at the higher wraparound rate (7%), earning income on the interest rate spread over the wrapped portion. The seller remains personally liable for the original loan, and due-on-sale risk still exists if the underlying lender discovers the sale.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. The seller still must make payments on the original $150,000 loan.
  • C. Wraparounds carry due-on-sale risk since the underlying loan is not paid off or disclosed.
  • D. The buyer does not assume the original loan; the seller remains obligated on it.

Wraparound Mortgage

A junior financing arrangement where a new loan 'wraps around' an existing loan; the seller/lender collects payments on the full new balance while continuing to pay the underlying loan.

  • Seller profits from the interest rate spread
  • Underlying loan remains in the seller's name
  • Risky if underlying loan has a due-on-sale clause

Memory trick: Wrap the old loan inside the new, pocket the interest spread.

More Financing questions