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FAA Aircraft Dispatcher (ADX)

Practice bank
240 Qs
Real exam
80 Qs
Time limit
180 min
Passing
70%

Exam blueprint

Regulations (Part 121)
30%
Meteorology
25%
Flight Planning and Performance
25%
Navigation and ATC
20%

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FAA Aircraft Dispatcher (ADX) practice test questions

Sample questions from the 240-question bank, with answers and explanations.

All questions
  1. 1. A dispatcher comparing two surface analysis charts notices that isobars over the planned route are spaced much closer together on today's chart compared to yesterday's, with no change in latitude. What does this closer spacing indicate?

    Meteorology

    • A. A stronger pressure gradient and stronger surface winds
    • B. An area of stable air with no vertical motion expected
    • C. A weaker pressure gradient and lighter surface winds
    • D. An occluded frontal boundary is beginning to form
    Show answer

    A. A stronger pressure gradient and stronger surface winds

    Isobar spacing directly reflects the pressure gradient force: closely spaced isobars indicate a steep pressure gradient over a short distance, which produces stronger geostrophic and surface winds. Widely spaced isobars indicate a weak gradient and lighter winds.

  2. 2. A dispatcher needs to verify whether a temporary runway closure has been published for a towered airport. This type of NOTAM, covering airport facility conditions such as runway or taxiway closures and obstructions, is normally classified as which type of NOTAM?

    Flight Planning and Performance

    • A. FDC NOTAM
    • B. Military NOTAM
    • C. Pointer NOTAM
    • D. NOTAM (D)
    Show answer

    D. NOTAM (D)

    NOTAM (D) (Distant) items are distributed via the National Airspace System and cover airport and facility conditions such as runway/taxiway closures, lighting outages, and obstructions. FDC NOTAMs, by contrast, cover regulatory items like amended instrument approach procedures, TFRs, and changes to charts.

  3. 3. An aircraft is flying with a true airspeed of 200 knots. The wind is 40 knots, striking the aircraft at an angle of 60° off the nose. What is the approximate ground speed?

    Flight Planning and Performance

    • A. 200 knots
    • B. 160 knots
    • C. 180 knots
    • D. 140 knots
    Show answer

    C. 180 knots

    Headwind component = wind speed × cosine of angle off the nose = 40 × cos(60°) = 40 × 0.5 = 20 knots. Ground speed = TAS − headwind component = 200 − 20 = 180 knots.

  4. 4. A dispatcher reviewing a surface analysis chart notes a front with a gentle slope, extensive stratiform cloud decks (cirrostratus, altostratus, nimbostratus) extending several hundred miles ahead of the surface position, and widespread steady precipitation preceding its passage. This is characteristic of which type of front?

    Meteorology

    • A. Cold front
    • B. Occluded front
    • C. Stationary front
    • D. Warm front
    Show answer

    D. Warm front

    Warm fronts have a shallow slope (typically 1:100 to 1:300), causing warm air to gradually override the retreating cold air well ahead of the surface position, producing layered stratiform clouds and prolonged light-to-moderate precipitation. Cold fronts are steeper and produce narrower bands of more intense weather.

  5. 5. A cargo pallet weighing 400 pounds is moved 30 feet forward in an aircraft with a total weight of 60,000 pounds. How far and in which direction does the center of gravity shift?

    Flight Planning and Performance

    • A. 2.0 feet forward
    • B. 0.5 foot forward
    • C. 0.2 foot forward
    • D. 0.1 foot forward
    Show answer

    C. 0.2 foot forward

    CG shift = (weight moved × distance moved) ÷ total aircraft weight = (400 × 30) ÷ 60,000 = 12,000 ÷ 60,000 = 0.2 foot forward, since the weight moved toward the nose.

  6. 6. A dispatcher calculates trip fuel of 10,000 pounds for a Part 121 flight. Using the standard contingency fuel allowance of 5% of trip fuel, how many pounds of contingency fuel must be added to the flight plan?

    Flight Planning and Performance

    • A. 500 pounds
    • B. 750 pounds
    • C. 1,000 pounds
    • D. 250 pounds
    Show answer

    A. 500 pounds

    Contingency fuel is calculated as 5% of the planned trip fuel: 10,000 lb × 0.05 = 500 lb. This fuel covers unforeseen factors such as minor routing or wind deviations.

  7. 7. A Part 121 airplane is configured with 150 passenger seats. Under 14 CFR 121.309, what is the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required to be conveniently located in the passenger compartment?

    Regulations (Part 121)

    • A. Two
    • B. Four
    • C. Three
    • D. One
    Show answer

    C. Three

    14 CFR 121.309(c) establishes a sliding scale: 1 extinguisher for 7-30 seats, 2 for 31-60 seats, 3 for 61-200 seats, and additional extinguishers for larger cabins. With 150 seats, the airplane falls in the 61-200 seat bracket requiring 3 extinguishers.

  8. 8. A dispatcher receives a report of a volcanic eruption producing an ash cloud that may affect a planned route. Which statement about the SIGMET issued for this hazard is correct?

    Meteorology

    • A. It is only advisory and does not require rerouting consideration
    • B. It is valid for 2 hours, the same as a convective SIGMET
    • C. It is treated identically to an AIRMET Sierra for IFR conditions
    • D. It is valid for 6 hours, longer than a standard non-convective SIGMET
    Show answer

    D. It is valid for 6 hours, longer than a standard non-convective SIGMET

    SIGMETs for volcanic ash (and hurricanes) are valid for up to 6 hours, longer than the standard 4-hour validity period for other non-convective SIGMETs and the 2-hour validity of Convective SIGMETs. Volcanic ash poses a serious hazard to jet engines and must be treated as a significant flight-planning consideration, not merely advisory information.

  9. 9. A Part 121 domestic flight is being planned. Under 14 CFR 121.533, who is jointly responsible with the aircraft dispatcher for the operational control of that flight?

    Regulations (Part 121)

    • A. The Director of Operations
    • B. Air Traffic Control
    • C. The chief pilot
    • D. The pilot in command
    Show answer

    D. The pilot in command

    14 CFR 121.533 establishes that for domestic and flag operations, the certificate holder is responsible for operational control, but the pilot in command and the aircraft dispatcher are jointly responsible for the preflight planning, delay, and dispatch of a flight in compliance with applicable regulations and the operations manual.

  10. 10. A dispatcher reviewing a surface analysis chart identifies an air mass that formed over the subtropical Atlantic Ocean, characterized as warm and moist. How should this air mass be classified?

    Meteorology

    • A. Continental Tropical (cT)
    • B. Maritime Tropical (mT)
    • C. Continental Polar (cP)
    • D. Maritime Polar (mP)
    Show answer

    B. Maritime Tropical (mT)

    Air mass classification is based on source region moisture (maritime/continental) and temperature (tropical/polar/arctic). An air mass forming over warm subtropical ocean water is warm and moist, making it maritime tropical (mT).

  11. 11. A dispatcher needs to determine the specific aircraft, authorized routes, and airports approved for a Part 121 certificate holder's operations. Under 14 CFR Part 119, where is this information officially specified?

    Regulations (Part 121)

    • A. In the certificate holder's general operations manual only
    • B. In the individual dispatch release for each flight
    • C. In the air carrier's operations specifications (OpSpecs)
    • D. In the pilot's individual flight logbook
    Show answer

    C. In the air carrier's operations specifications (OpSpecs)

    Operations Specifications (OpSpecs), issued under 14 CFR Part 119 in conjunction with the air carrier's certificate, detail the specific authorizations, limitations, and conditions under which the certificate holder operates, including authorized aircraft, routes, and airports.

  12. 12. A dispatcher is planning a Part 121 flight on a turbine-powered airplane along a route where thunderstorms are forecast. Under 14 CFR 121.357, what equipment must be installed and operable for this flight?

    Regulations (Part 121)

    • A. An approved airborne weather radar system
    • B. A second independent altimeter system
    • C. An auxiliary power unit
    • D. A backup magnetic compass only
    Show answer

    A. An approved airborne weather radar system

    14 CFR 121.357 requires turbine-powered airplanes to be equipped with approved airborne weather radar when operated in areas where thunderstorms or other potentially hazardous weather may be expected along the route. This allows the flight crew to detect and avoid severe convective activity.

  13. 13. A parcel of air at a given temperature contains exactly half the amount of water vapor it could hold at saturation for that temperature. What is the relative humidity of this air parcel?

    Meteorology

    • A. 100%
    • B. 25%
    • C. 75%
    • D. 50%
    Show answer

    D. 50%

    Relative humidity is the ratio of the actual amount of water vapor present in the air to the maximum amount the air could hold at that temperature, expressed as a percentage. Half of the saturation amount equals 50% relative humidity.

  14. 14. A dispatcher reviewing overnight surface observations at an airport near elevated terrain notes that after sunset, cold dense air steadily drains down the mountain slopes into the valley, increasing surface wind speed near the airport. This phenomenon is best classified as a:

    Meteorology

    • A. Katabatic wind
    • B. Foehn wind
    • C. Geostrophic wind
    • D. Ageostrophic wind
    Show answer

    A. Katabatic wind

    A katabatic wind is a gravity-driven flow of dense, cold air downslope, typically occurring at night as radiational cooling chills air near elevated terrain, causing it to sink and accelerate into valleys.

  15. 15. A dispatcher is releasing a turbine-powered Part 121 flight during freezing drizzle. The certificate holder's FAA-approved ground deicing/anti-icing program, required under 14 CFR 121.629(c), primarily uses which factors to determine the applicable holdover time before the clean aircraft concept is compromised?

    Regulations (Part 121)

    • A. Aircraft tail number and time since last maintenance check
    • B. Type and intensity of precipitation and outside air temperature
    • C. Runway length and airport elevation only
    • D. Passenger load and center of gravity location
    Show answer

    B. Type and intensity of precipitation and outside air temperature

    Holdover time tables, developed for use under the 121.629(c) ground deicing/anti-icing program, are based on the type and intensity of active precipitation along with outside air temperature, since these factors determine how quickly fluid protection degrades.

  16. 16. During cruise, a Part 121 flight crew determines that remaining fuel will arrive at the destination with less than the required reserve if any delay occurs, but an immediate emergency does not yet exist. What is the correct action per AIM guidance?

    Navigation and ATC

    • A. Continue without notifying ATC since fuel reserves are a company dispatch matter only
    • B. Request a fuel emergency squawk code 7700 to alert ATC facilities along the route
    • C. Advise ATC of 'minimum fuel,' understanding this does not imply a need for priority handling but does advise ATC that any delay could result in an emergency
    • D. Declare an emergency immediately to guarantee priority handling from ATC
    Show answer

    C. Advise ATC of 'minimum fuel,' understanding this does not imply a need for priority handling but does advise ATC that any delay could result in an emergency

    Per the AIM, pilots should advise ATC of a 'minimum fuel' state when fuel supply is such that little or no delay can be accepted. This is not an emergency declaration and does not guarantee priority handling, but it alerts ATC that a fuel emergency may develop if further delays occur.

  17. 17. A dispatcher reviewing a temperature sounding notes an abrupt change from a decreasing to a near-isothermal or slightly increasing temperature trend with height at approximately 35,000 feet. This boundary marks the:

    Meteorology

    • A. Freezing level, where temperature crosses 0°C
    • B. Mesopause, marking the top of the mesosphere near 50 miles altitude
    • C. Base of the jet stream core, which is always located at a fixed altitude worldwide
    • D. Tropopause, which separates the troposphere from the stratosphere and is typically lower and colder near the poles than at the equator
    Show answer

    D. Tropopause, which separates the troposphere from the stratosphere and is typically lower and colder near the poles than at the equator

    The tropopause is the boundary between the troposphere and stratosphere, marked by an abrupt change from decreasing temperature with height to near-isothermal or slightly increasing temperature. Its height varies with latitude and season, typically being higher and warmer at the equator and lower and colder near the poles.

  18. 18. A Part 121 flight experiences a two-way radio communications failure while being radar vectored by ATC. The last ATC transmission before the failure was a vector heading with no further routing information given, and ATC had not issued an expected further clearance. Per 14 CFR 91.185, what route should the pilot fly after the failure?

    Navigation and ATC

    • A. Direct to the nearest VOR and hold until radio contact is restored
    • B. The route filed in the flight plan, disregarding the vector
    • C. A route of the pilot's choosing that provides the shortest distance to the destination
    • D. The direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance
    Show answer

    D. The direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance

    Under 91.185(c)(1), lost comm routing follows the priority AVEF: Assigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed. When being vectored with no assigned or expected route beyond the vector, the pilot must proceed direct from the point of failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.

  19. 19. A dispatcher is checking VOR service volume classifications for enroute planning. A VOR is designated Class 'H' (High Altitude). What is the usable range at 45,000 feet MSL and above (up to 60,000 ft)?

    Navigation and ATC

    • A. 130 nautical miles
    • B. 100 nautical miles
    • C. 40 nautical miles
    • D. 25 nautical miles
    Show answer

    B. 100 nautical miles

    For a High altitude (H) class VOR, the standard service volume provides 40 NM from 1,000 to 14,500 ft, 100 NM from 14,500 to 18,000 ft, 130 NM from 18,000 to 45,000 ft, and 100 NM from 45,000 to 60,000 ft.

  20. 20. A dispatcher is reviewing turbojet takeoff performance data. Which statement best defines V1?

    Flight Planning and Performance

    • A. The calculated speed at 35 feet above the runway at the end of the takeoff distance.
    • B. The maximum speed at which the pilot must take the first action to reject the takeoff, and the minimum speed at which the takeoff must be continued following an engine failure.
    • C. The speed at which the aircraft is rotated for takeoff.
    • D. The minimum speed at which the aircraft can be safely flown with the critical engine inoperative.
    Show answer

    B. The maximum speed at which the pilot must take the first action to reject the takeoff, and the minimum speed at which the takeoff must be continued following an engine failure.

    V1 is the takeoff decision speed: the maximum speed at which the crew can initiate a rejected takeoff and stop within the accelerate-stop distance, and the minimum speed at which the takeoff must be continued following recognition of an engine failure.

  21. 21. A dispatcher is preparing the load manifest for a Part 121 flight. Under 14 CFR 121.665, which of the following is NOT a required element of the load manifest?

    Regulations (Part 121)

    • A. The individual seat assignment of each passenger aboard the flight
    • B. The weight of the airplane, crew, fuel, and cargo/baggage/passengers
    • C. The center of gravity limits and the center of gravity of the loaded airplane
    • D. The maximum allowable takeoff weight for the flight
    Show answer

    A. The individual seat assignment of each passenger aboard the flight

    14 CFR 121.665 requires the load manifest to show the weight of the airplane, crew, fuel, and cargo/baggage/passengers; the maximum allowable weight; the center of gravity limits; the center of gravity of the loaded airplane; and identification of registration/flight number and the persons who prepared and accepted it. It does not require listing individual passenger seat assignments.

  22. 22. An aircraft is cruising at Mach 0.80 in conditions where the local speed of sound is 590 knots. What is the aircraft's approximate true airspeed?

    Flight Planning and Performance

    • A. 590 knots
    • B. 472 knots
    • C. 450 knots
    • D. 500 knots
    Show answer

    B. 472 knots

    True airspeed equals Mach number multiplied by the local speed of sound: 0.80 × 590 = 472 knots.

  23. 23. A dispatcher is planning a flight for a twin-engine aircraft operating under a 180-minute ETOPS authorization. What does this 180-minute diversion time represent?

    Flight Planning and Performance

    • A. The total flight time allowed between scheduled maintenance checks
    • B. The maximum flying time to an adequate alternate airport at one-engine-inoperative cruise speed in still air
    • C. The maximum time the aircraft can remain airborne with both engines operating normally
    • D. The maximum time ATC will hold the flight before rerouting
    Show answer

    B. The maximum flying time to an adequate alternate airport at one-engine-inoperative cruise speed in still air

    ETOPS diversion time (e.g., 180 minutes) defines the maximum distance from an adequate alternate airport, expressed in flying time at the approved one-engine-inoperative cruise speed in still-air conditions, that the aircraft may operate along its route.

  24. 24. ATC is conducting simultaneous independent ILS approaches to two parallel runways in IMC. What minimum runway centerline separation is generally required for this type of operation, along with monitoring of a No Transgression Zone (NTZ)?

    Navigation and ATC

    • A. 5,000 feet
    • B. 2,500 feet
    • C. 3,000 feet
    • D. 4,300 feet
    Show answer

    D. 4,300 feet

    Simultaneous independent ILS approaches to parallel runways generally require at least 4,300 feet of runway centerline separation, with a designated No Transgression Zone (NTZ) monitored by radar to ensure separation is maintained if an aircraft deviates from its final approach course.

  25. 25. A published SID requires a minimum climb gradient of 290 feet per nautical mile to 5,000 feet MSL. If the aircraft maintains a groundspeed of 140 knots during the climb, what rate of climb (in feet per minute) is required to comply with this gradient?

    Navigation and ATC

    • A. 677 fpm
    • B. 406 fpm
    • C. 507 fpm
    • D. 812 fpm
    Show answer

    A. 677 fpm

    Rate of climb (fpm) = (climb gradient in ft/NM × groundspeed in knots) ÷ 60. Calculation: (290 × 140) ÷ 60 = 40,600 ÷ 60 = 676.7 fpm, which rounds to approximately 677 fpm.

FAA Aircraft Dispatcher (ADX) flashcards

Tap a card to flip it. 216 flashcards in the full deck.

  • Pressure Gradient Force

    Flip card

    The force that drives wind from high to low pressure, proportional to the rate of pressure change over distance shown by isobar spacing.

    • Close isobars = strong gradient = strong wind
    • Wide isobars = weak gradient = light wind
    • Wind speed is proportional to gradient, not pressure value itself
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  • NOTAM Classification

    Flip card

    NOTAMs are categorized by type based on content: NOTAM (D) covers airport/facility conditions; FDC NOTAMs cover regulatory and procedural changes.

    • NOTAM (D): runway/taxiway closures, lighting, obstructions
    • FDC NOTAM: TFRs, approach procedure amendments, chart changes
    • Both are distributed through the NOTAM system but serve different purposes
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  • Wind Component Calculation

    Flip card

    The headwind or tailwind component equals wind speed multiplied by the cosine of the angle between the wind and the aircraft's course.

    • Headwind component = wind speed × cos(angle off nose)
    • Ground speed = TAS − headwind (or + tailwind) component
    • At 90° off the nose, wind is pure crosswind with no speed effect
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  • Warm Front

    Flip card

    A boundary where warm air actively replaces retreating cold air, characterized by a shallow slope and widespread stratiform cloud and precipitation ahead of the surface position.

    • Slope roughly 1:100 to 1:300
    • Produces cirrostratus through nimbostratus progression
    • Precipitation and reduced visibility can extend 200-300 miles ahead of the surface front
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  • CG Shift Formula

    Flip card

    When weight is shifted within an aircraft, the CG shift distance equals (weight moved × distance moved) divided by total aircraft weight.

    • Formula: CG shift = (weight shifted × distance shifted) ÷ total weight
    • Direction of CG shift matches direction weight was moved
    • Used for load shifts, not for adding/removing weight
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  • Contingency Fuel

    Flip card

    Contingency fuel is additional fuel, typically 5% of trip fuel, carried to cover unforeseen factors that could affect fuel consumption to the destination.

    • Standard value: 5% of trip fuel
    • Covers unplanned routing, wind, or ATC delays
    • One component among taxi, trip, alternate, and reserve fuel
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  • Hand Fire Extinguisher Scale (121.309)

    Flip card

    Sets minimum number of passenger-compartment hand fire extinguishers based on seating capacity.

    • 7-30 seats = 1 extinguisher
    • 31-60 seats = 2 extinguishers
    • 61-200 seats = 3 extinguishers (increasing further for larger cabins)
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  • Volcanic Ash SIGMET

    Flip card

    A SIGMET issued for volcanic eruptions producing ash clouds hazardous to aircraft, valid for up to 6 hours.

    • Valid for 6 hours (vs. 4 hours for standard non-convective SIGMETs)
    • Volcanic ash can cause jet engine flameout and severe airframe/windscreen damage
    • Issued regardless of location, since ash can spread far from the eruption site
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  • Joint Operational Control (121.533)

    Flip card

    Regulation establishing that the PIC and aircraft dispatcher share joint responsibility for preflight planning, delay, and dispatch of domestic and flag flights.

    • Applies to domestic and flag operations
    • PIC and dispatcher must both agree flight can be safely conducted
    • Certificate holder retains overall operational control responsibility
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  • Air Mass Classification

    Flip card

    Air masses are classified by source region temperature (arctic, polar, tropical) and moisture content (maritime, continental).

    • cP: cold, dry, over land
    • mT: warm, moist, over tropical ocean
    • cT: hot, dry, over tropical land
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  • Operations Specifications (OpSpecs)

    Flip card

    A legal document issued to each certificate holder detailing authorized aircraft, routes, airports, and operational limitations under Part 119/121.

    • Issued under Part 119 alongside the operating certificate
    • Specifies authorized aircraft, routes, and airports
    • Legally binding; must be kept current and available
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  • Weather Radar Requirement (121.357)

    Flip card

    Regulation requiring turbine-powered Part 121 airplanes to carry airborne weather radar on routes where thunderstorms may occur.

    • Applies to turbine-powered airplanes
    • Triggered by forecast/expected thunderstorms along the route
    • Radar must be approved and operable for dispatch
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  • Relative Humidity

    Flip card

    The ratio, expressed as a percentage, of the actual water vapor content of the air to the maximum amount the air could hold at that temperature.

    • 100% relative humidity means the air is saturated
    • Relative humidity changes with temperature even if moisture content stays constant
    • Warming air lowers relative humidity; cooling raises it toward saturation
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  • Katabatic Wind

    Flip card

    A downslope wind caused by cold, dense air draining from higher terrain into valleys, most common on clear nights with light gradient winds.

    • Driven by radiational cooling and gravity
    • Occurs mainly at night in mountain/valley terrain
    • Opposite of foehn wind, which is warm and adiabatically heated
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  • Ground Deicing/Anti-Icing Program (121.629(c))

    Flip card

    Requires an FAA-approved program using holdover time tables to ensure a clean aircraft prior to takeoff in icing conditions.

    • Holdover time varies with precipitation type/intensity and OAT
    • Program includes pre-takeoff contamination checks
    • Supports compliance with the clean aircraft concept
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  • Minimum Fuel Advisory

    Flip card

    An ATC advisory made by a pilot when fuel state is such that no delay can be accepted, without declaring an emergency or guaranteeing priority handling.

    • Does NOT guarantee priority handling from ATC
    • Distinct from declaring a fuel emergency (which does require priority)
    • Alerts ATC that a subsequent delay could result in an emergency
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  • Tropopause

    Flip card

    The boundary layer separating the troposphere from the stratosphere, marked by a sharp change in the temperature lapse rate; its height varies with latitude and season.

    • Higher (~55,000 ft) and warmer at the equator; lower (~25,000-30,000 ft) and colder at the poles
    • Marked by transition from decreasing to isothermal/increasing temperature with height
    • Closely associated with the position of the jet stream
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  • Lost Comm Route Selection (AVEF)

    Flip card

    14 CFR 91.185(c)(1) establishes a priority order for determining the route to fly after a two-way radio failure while IFR.

    • A = Assigned route in last ATC clearance
    • V = Vectored — direct to the fix/route/airway specified when the vector was given
    • E = Expected route per further clearance information
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  • VOR Service Volumes

    Flip card

    VORs are classified (T, L, H) with standard service volumes defining usable signal range at various altitude bands; High-altitude VORs have the largest overall coverage.

    • Terminal (T): 25 NM, 1,000–12,000 ft
    • Low (L): 40 NM, 1,000–18,000 ft
    • High (H): 40 NM to 14,500 ft, 100 NM to 18,000 ft, 130 NM to 45,000 ft, 100 NM to 60,000 ft
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  • V1 (Takeoff Decision Speed)

    Flip card

    The critical speed during takeoff roll at which the decision to continue or reject the takeoff must be made.

    • Balances accelerate-stop and accelerate-go distances
    • Below V1: reject; at/above V1: continue takeoff
    • Determined by weight, runway, wind, and obstacle data
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  • Load Manifest Contents (121.665)

    Flip card

    Requires documentation of weight, CG, and balance data before dispatch to verify the airplane is within limits.

    • Includes airplane weight and max allowable weight
    • Includes CG limits and actual loaded CG
    • Signed by preparer, does not include passenger seating
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  • Mach Number and True Airspeed

    Flip card

    True airspeed at a given Mach number equals the Mach number multiplied by the local speed of sound, which varies with outside air temperature.

    • TAS = Mach × local speed of sound
    • Speed of sound decreases with colder temperatures (higher altitude)
    • Mach number is used for high-speed cruise performance and buffet margins
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  • ETOPS Diversion Time

    Flip card

    ETOPS diversion time is the maximum time, in minutes, that a twin-engine aircraft may operate from an adequate alternate airport based on one-engine-inoperative cruise speed in still air.

    • Common authorizations: 60, 120, 180, 207, 240 minutes
    • Based on OEI cruise speed, not normal cruise speed
    • Defines the ETOPS area of operation on a route
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  • Simultaneous Independent Parallel ILS Approaches

    Flip card

    A procedure allowing independent radar-monitored ILS approaches to closely spaced parallel runways, requiring at least 4,300 ft centerline separation and use of an NTZ.

    • Minimum 4,300 ft runway centerline spacing (standard case)
    • No Transgression Zone (NTZ) monitored by radar between final approach courses
    • Requires precision runway monitor for closer spacing in some cases
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