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CPA Exam — REG (Regulation)

Practice bank
209 Qs
Real exam
76 Qs
Time limit
240 min
Passing
75

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Ethics, Professional Responsibilities, and Federal Tax Procedures
10%
Business Law
17%
Federal Taxation of Property Transactions
18%
Federal Taxation of Individuals
18%
Federal Taxation of Entities
37%

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CPA Exam — REG (Regulation) practice test questions

Sample questions from the 209-question bank, with answers and explanations.

All questions
  1. 1. A small business owner, Sarah, enters into a contract to purchase a specialized piece of machinery from Manufacturer Inc. The contract specifies that the machinery must be delivered by October 15th. On October 1st, Sarah receives a letter from Manufacturer Inc. stating that due to unforeseen production issues, they will be unable to deliver the machinery until December 1st. Sarah needs the machinery by October 15th to fulfill a major client order. Which of the following is Sarah's best course of action under contract law?

    Business Law

    • A. Request a price reduction from Manufacturer Inc. for the delay.
    • B. Offer to extend the delivery date to November 1st in exchange for a discount.
    • C. Wait until October 15th to see if Manufacturer Inc. delivers the machinery.
    • D. Immediately treat the contract as breached and seek remedies.
    Show answer

    D. Immediately treat the contract as breached and seek remedies.

    Manufacturer Inc.'s letter constitutes an anticipatory repudiation, clearly indicating an inability to perform by the contract date. Sarah can immediately treat this as a breach and pursue remedies without waiting for the actual breach date.

  2. 2. A buyer enters into a contract with a seller for the purchase of 500 widgets, with delivery specified as 'FOB Seller's Place of Business.' During transit from the seller's warehouse to the buyer's location, the truck carrying the widgets is involved in an accident, and all 500 widgets are destroyed. Assuming no fault on the part of either party, who bears the risk of loss for the destroyed widgets?

    Business Law

    • A. The seller, because the goods had not yet reached the buyer.
    • B. The carrier, as they were responsible for the goods in transit.
    • C. Both buyer and seller equally, as it was an unforeseeable event.
    • D. The buyer, because the risk of loss passed upon shipment.
    Show answer

    D. The buyer, because the risk of loss passed upon shipment.

    Under a 'FOB Seller's Place of Business' (or 'FOB Shipping Point') contract, the risk of loss passes to the buyer once the seller delivers the goods to the carrier. Since the goods were destroyed during transit, after leaving the seller's place, the buyer bears the risk.

  3. 3. A principal hires an agent to negotiate the sale of a commercial property. The agency agreement explicitly grants the agent the authority to list the property, show it to potential buyers, and accept offers within a specific price range. The agreement, however, does not mention signing a final sales contract. The agent receives an offer within the specified price range and signs a sales contract on behalf of the principal. Is the principal bound by the agent's signing of the sales contract?

    Business Law

    • A. No, because the agent's actions constituted a breach of fiduciary duty.
    • B. Yes, because the agent had apparent authority to sign the contract.
    • C. Yes, because the agent had implied authority to sign the contract.
    • D. No, because the agent exceeded their express authority.
    Show answer

    D. No, because the agent exceeded their express authority.

    Express authority is explicitly granted to the agent. Since the agency agreement did not mention signing a final sales contract, the agent exceeded their express authority by doing so. The principal would only be bound if there was implied or apparent authority, which is not clearly established here for signing the final contract.

  4. 4. A general partnership, 'Alpha & Beta,' has two partners, Alpha and Beta. Alpha performs an act that is clearly outside the ordinary course of the partnership's business, without Beta's knowledge or consent. A third party, unaware of Alpha's lack of authority, reasonably believes Alpha has the authority to act on behalf of the partnership due to previous interactions where Alpha routinely handled similar, though not identical, transactions. Is the partnership bound by Alpha's act?

    Business Law

    • A. Yes, because partners always have actual authority to bind the partnership.
    • B. No, because Beta did not consent to Alpha's action.
    • C. Yes, because Alpha had apparent authority, binding the partnership.
    • D. No, because the act was outside the ordinary course of business.
    Show answer

    C. Yes, because Alpha had apparent authority, binding the partnership.

    Apparent authority arises when the principal (the partnership) leads a third party to reasonably believe an agent (Alpha) has authority, even if actual authority doesn't exist. Previous interactions, where Alpha handled similar transactions, could create this reasonable belief for the third party, thereby binding the partnership, despite the act being outside the ordinary course of business from an internal perspective.

  5. 5. A consumer purchases a new smart television from an electronics retailer. The retailer, a merchant, sells the TV in its usual course of business. After two weeks, the TV's screen malfunctions, displaying only static. There was no extended warranty purchased, and the sales contract was silent on specific warranties. Under UCC Article 2, which implied warranty has the retailer most likely breached?

    Business Law

    • A. Implied warranty of title
    • B. Implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose
    • C. Implied warranty against infringement
    • D. Implied warranty of merchantability
    Show answer

    D. Implied warranty of merchantability

    The implied warranty of merchantability, which applies to merchants selling goods, guarantees that the goods are fit for the ordinary purposes for which such goods are used. A smart television displaying static rather than a clear picture within two weeks clearly indicates it is not fit for its ordinary purpose.

  6. 6. A homeowner hires a contractor to build an addition to their house. The contract specifies that the contractor will complete the work by October 1st. On September 15th, a major hurricane unexpectedly causes significant damage to the existing structure and the partially completed addition, making further construction impossible until extensive repairs are made to the original house. The contractor informs the homeowner that they cannot meet the October 1st deadline and the project will be significantly delayed. Which of the following legal concepts would most likely excuse the contractor's delay in performance?

    Business Law

    • A. Commercial impracticability
    • B. Mutual mistake
    • C. Frustration of purpose
    • D. Accord and satisfaction
    Show answer

    A. Commercial impracticability

    Commercial impracticability applies when unforeseen circumstances make performance extremely difficult or expensive, though not impossible. The hurricane causing extensive damage and delaying the project significantly fits this doctrine, as it was an unforeseeable event making performance as originally planned commercially unreasonable.

  7. 7. A general contractor, Builder Inc., hires a subcontractor, Electric LLC, to handle all electrical work for a new commercial building project. During the project, an employee of Electric LLC negligently installs wiring, causing a fire that damages a portion of the building. The property owner sues Builder Inc. for the damages. Under which legal doctrine might Builder Inc. be held liable for the actions of Electric LLC's employee?

    Business Law

    • A. Respondeat superior
    • B. Estoppel
    • C. Promissory estoppel
    • D. Contributory negligence
    Show answer

    A. Respondeat superior

    Respondeat superior is a doctrine that holds an employer (or principal) responsible for the wrongful acts of an employee (or agent) committed within the scope of employment. While Electric LLC is a subcontractor, Builder Inc. could potentially be held liable if Electric LLC was considered an agent or if Builder Inc. retained significant control over the electrical work, making Electric LLC's employee an 'employee' for liability purposes.

  8. 8. A small manufacturing company, MicroTech Inc., is seeking to expand its operations and obtains a loan from First Bank. To secure the loan, MicroTech grants First Bank a security interest in all of its current and after-acquired equipment. First Bank promptly files a financing statement with the appropriate state office. MicroTech later obtains a second loan from Capital Credit, which also takes a security interest in MicroTech's equipment and files a financing statement. If MicroTech defaults on both loans, which lender has priority over the equipment?

    Business Law

    • A. The lender that physically possesses the equipment, regardless of filing.
    • B. Capital Credit, because it was the second to lend money.
    • C. First Bank, because it perfected its security interest first.
    • D. Both lenders share priority equally due to simultaneous perfection.
    Show answer

    C. First Bank, because it perfected its security interest first.

    Under Article 9 of the UCC, the general rule for priority between two perfected security interests in the same collateral is 'first to file or perfect.' Since First Bank filed its financing statement first, it has priority.

  9. 9. A secured creditor takes a security interest in a debtor's inventory. The security agreement includes an after-acquired property clause. The creditor properly files a financing statement on January 15, 2023. On March 1, 2023, the debtor acquires new inventory. On April 1, 2023, another creditor obtains a judgment lien against the debtor and levies on the new inventory. Which creditor has priority over the new inventory?

    Business Law

    • A. The secured creditor, because their security interest attached and perfected when the debtor acquired the new inventory.
    • B. The secured creditor, but only if they refiled the financing statement after the new inventory was acquired.
    • C. Both creditors share priority equally, as their interests arose at different times.
    • D. The judgment lien creditor, because they levied on the inventory first.
    Show answer

    A. The secured creditor, because their security interest attached and perfected when the debtor acquired the new inventory.

    Under the UCC, a security interest in after-acquired property attaches when the debtor acquires the collateral. However, if a financing statement covering 'inventory' was already filed, the security interest is considered perfected *at the time of the initial filing* for after-acquired inventory. Thus, the secured creditor's interest was perfected as of January 15, 2023, giving it priority over the later judgment lien.

  10. 10. A publicly traded company, Innovate Corp., is subject to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. Innovate Corp. is preparing its quarterly financial statements. Which of the following forms is Innovate Corp. required to file with the SEC for its quarterly financial report?

    Business Law

    • A. Form 10-K
    • B. Form 8-K
    • C. Form 10-Q
    • D. Form S-1
    Show answer

    C. Form 10-Q

    Form 10-Q is the quarterly report required to be filed by public companies with the SEC, providing a continuing view of the company's financial position and operations.

  11. 11. A publicly traded company, Innovate Corp., is subject to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. Which of the following statements regarding its filing obligations is correct?

    Business Law

    • A. Innovate Corp. must file Form S-1 annually to register any new securities.
    • B. Innovate Corp. is exempt from filing requirements if its assets are below $10 million.
    • C. Innovate Corp. must file Form 10-K annually, which provides a comprehensive summary of its financial performance.
    • D. Innovate Corp. must file Form 8-K monthly, reporting any significant events.
    Show answer

    C. Innovate Corp. must file Form 10-K annually, which provides a comprehensive summary of its financial performance.

    Publicly traded companies subject to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 are required to file periodic reports with the SEC. Form 10-K is the annual report that provides a comprehensive overview of the company's business and financial condition.

  12. 12. A homeowner hires a contractor to build an addition to their house. The contract specifies that the contractor must use a particular type of imported Italian marble for the flooring. Before construction begins, a sudden and severe trade embargo is imposed, making it impossible to import the specified marble from Italy. The contractor can source a similar quality marble domestically, but it is 300% more expensive. The contractor notifies the homeowner of the situation. Which of the following legal doctrines is most applicable to this scenario?

    Business Law

    • A. Commercial impracticability
    • B. Mutual mistake
    • C. Frustration of purpose
    • D. Impossibility of performance
    Show answer

    A. Commercial impracticability

    Commercial impracticability applies when unforeseen circumstances make performance extremely and unreasonably difficult or expensive, though not strictly impossible. The sudden, severe trade embargo and the 300% price increase for a substitute marble fit this doctrine. Impossibility would apply if no marble could be sourced at all.

  13. 13. A principal hires an agent to negotiate the sale of a commercial property. The agency agreement explicitly states that the agent has the authority to list the property, show it to potential buyers, and present offers, but *not* to sign any sales contracts on behalf of the principal. The agent, believing they found a great deal, signs a sales contract with a buyer, representing themselves as having full authority. The principal later refuses to honor the contract. What type of authority did the agent *lack* when signing the contract?

    Business Law

    • A. Express authority
    • B. Implied authority
    • C. Apparent authority
    • D. Emergency authority
    Show answer

    A. Express authority

    Express authority is directly granted by the principal to the agent, either orally or in writing. In this scenario, the contract explicitly denied the agent the authority to sign sales contracts, meaning express authority for that action was absent.

  14. 14. A debtor files for Chapter 7 bankruptcy. Among the debtor's assets is a fully paid-for, non-exempt classic car valued at $75,000. The debtor also has unsecured debts totaling $100,000. The bankruptcy trustee sells the car. After administrative expenses of $5,000 are paid, how much will be distributed to the unsecured creditors from the sale of this car?

    Business Law

    • A. $65,000
    • B. $75,000
    • C. $100,000
    • D. $70,000
    Show answer

    D. $70,000

    In a Chapter 7 bankruptcy, the trustee liquidates non-exempt assets. The proceeds are then distributed according to a statutory priority. Administrative expenses are paid first. From the $75,000 sale, $5,000 goes to administrative expenses, leaving $70,000 for the unsecured creditors. The total unsecured debt of $100,000 is irrelevant to the amount distributed from this specific asset, as they will only receive what's available.

  15. 15. A client, 'Green Leaf Nurseries', contracts with 'AquaFlow Irrigation' to install a new irrigation system. The contract specifies a payment of $15,000 upon completion. AquaFlow completes the installation, but due to a minor, easily fixable calibration error, the system initially waters 5% more than intended. Green Leaf Nurseries refuses to pay, claiming a complete breach. AquaFlow sues for payment. What is the most likely outcome regarding AquaFlow's right to payment?

    Business Law

    • A. AquaFlow is entitled to no payment due to the breach of contract.
    • B. AquaFlow must completely re-install the system before demanding payment.
    • C. AquaFlow is entitled to the contract price less damages for the minor defect.
    • D. AquaFlow is entitled to full payment as the breach was minor.
    Show answer

    C. AquaFlow is entitled to the contract price less damages for the minor defect.

    This scenario describes substantial performance, where a party has performed most of the contract obligations but with minor defects. The performing party is entitled to the contract price minus the cost to remedy the defects.

  16. 16. A client, a small business owner, enters into a contract to purchase custom-made equipment from a manufacturer. The contract specifies the equipment will be delivered in 90 days. Before delivery, the manufacturer informs the client that due to unforeseen material shortages, they will be unable to deliver the equipment for at least 150 days. The client, needing the equipment sooner, wishes to terminate the contract immediately without penalty. Under what legal doctrine can the client achieve this outcome?

    Business Law

    • A. Anticipatory repudiation
    • B. Novation
    • C. Mutual rescission
    • D. Accord and satisfaction
    Show answer

    A. Anticipatory repudiation

    Anticipatory repudiation occurs when one party to a contract clearly and unequivocally indicates that they will not perform their contractual obligations before the performance is due. This allows the non-breaching party to treat the contract as immediately breached and seek remedies.

  17. 17. A debtor files for Chapter 7 bankruptcy. Among their debts are $50,000 in student loans, $10,000 in credit card debt for luxury goods incurred 3 months prior to filing, $5,000 in unpaid child support, and $2,000 in utility bills. Which of these debts is generally NOT dischargeable under Chapter 7 bankruptcy?

    Business Law

    • A. Credit card debt for luxury goods
    • B. Unpaid child support
    • C. Student loans
    • D. Utility bills
    Show answer

    B. Unpaid child support

    Certain debts are non-dischargeable in Chapter 7 bankruptcy. Unpaid child support is a domestic support obligation, which is explicitly listed as a non-dischargeable debt to protect dependents. While student loans are also generally non-dischargeable, they can be discharged if the debtor can prove 'undue hardship,' which is a high bar. Child support is almost universally non-dischargeable.

  18. 18. A debtor files for Chapter 7 bankruptcy. Among their debts are $50,000 in student loans, $10,000 in credit card debt, and $5,000 for a recently purchased luxury item. The debtor successfully argues that due to severe medical conditions and limited future earning capacity, repaying the student loans would impose an 'undue hardship.' Which of the following debts is most likely to be dischargeable in this Chapter 7 proceeding?

    Business Law

    • A. All of the debts will be dischargeable.
    • B. The credit card debt, as it is generally dischargeable.
    • C. The student loans, due to the undue hardship finding.
    • D. The luxury item debt, if incurred within 90 days of filing.
    Show answer

    B. The credit card debt, as it is generally dischargeable.

    Credit card debt is generally dischargeable in Chapter 7 bankruptcy. Student loans are typically non-dischargeable unless the debtor proves 'undue hardship,' which was successfully argued here. Debts for luxury goods incurred close to the filing date can be presumed non-dischargeable.

  19. 19. A creditor holds a perfected security interest in a debtor's equipment. The debtor defaults on the loan. The creditor repossesses the equipment and decides to sell it to satisfy the debt. Under UCC Article 9, which of the following is generally required for the disposition of the collateral?

    Business Law

    • A. The creditor must retain the collateral for a minimum of 90 days before disposition.
    • B. The creditor must obtain the debtor's written consent for the method of disposition.
    • C. The creditor must dispose of the collateral in a commercially reasonable manner.
    • D. The creditor must sell the collateral through a public auction.
    Show answer

    C. The creditor must dispose of the collateral in a commercially reasonable manner.

    UCC Article 9 requires that a secured party dispose of collateral in a 'commercially reasonable manner' after default. This includes aspects like the method, manner, time, place, and terms of the disposition, aiming to maximize the proceeds for the benefit of both the creditor and debtor.

  20. 20. A general partnership, 'Alpha & Beta,' has two partners, Alpha and Beta. Alpha performs an act that is within the ordinary course of the partnership's business, but Beta had expressly told Alpha not to perform that specific act. A third party, unaware of Beta's instruction, reasonably believes Alpha has the authority to act for the partnership and contracts with Alpha on behalf of Alpha & Beta. Is the partnership bound by Alpha's act?

    Business Law

    • A. No, because Alpha lacked actual authority due to Beta's express instruction.
    • B. Yes, because Alpha had apparent authority, and the act was in the ordinary course of business.
    • C. Yes, but only if Beta later ratifies Alpha's unauthorized act.
    • D. No, because one partner cannot unilaterally bind the partnership against another partner's express wishes.
    Show answer

    B. Yes, because Alpha had apparent authority, and the act was in the ordinary course of business.

    In a general partnership, each partner has apparent authority to bind the partnership in matters within the ordinary course of business, unless the third party knows of a limitation on that authority. Since the third party was unaware of Beta's instruction, Alpha's apparent authority binds the partnership.

  21. 21. A secured creditor takes a security interest in a debtor's inventory. The security agreement includes a clause stating that the security interest also applies to 'all inventory acquired by the debtor in the future.' The debtor subsequently acquires new inventory from a different supplier. Does the creditor's security interest extend to this newly acquired inventory?

    Business Law

    • A. No, a new security agreement is required for each new acquisition of inventory.
    • B. No, a security interest can only attach to collateral existing at the time of the agreement.
    • C. Yes, due to an after-acquired property clause, which is valid for inventory.
    • D. Yes, but only if the new inventory is purchased from the same original supplier.
    Show answer

    C. Yes, due to an after-acquired property clause, which is valid for inventory.

    Under UCC Article 9, an 'after-acquired property clause' is generally effective and allows a security interest to attach to property acquired by the debtor after the security agreement is made. This is particularly common and effective for fluctuating collateral like inventory.

  22. 22. A debtor files for Chapter 7 bankruptcy. Among the debtor's assets is a fully paid-for, non-exempt classic car valued at $75,000. The debtor has two unsecured creditors: Creditor A is owed $60,000, and Creditor B is owed $30,000. After administrative expenses of $5,000 and priority claims of $10,000 are paid from the sale of the car, how much will Creditor B receive from the remaining proceeds?

    Business Law

    • A. $10,000
    • B. $20,000
    • C. $30,000
    • D. $15,000
    Show answer

    B. $20,000

    First, calculate the net proceeds available for distribution to unsecured creditors: $75,000 (car value) - $5,000 (administrative expenses) - $10,000 (priority claims) = $60,000. Next, calculate the total unsecured claims: $60,000 (Creditor A) + $30,000 (Creditor B) = $90,000. Creditor B's share is ($30,000 / $90,000) * $60,000 = (1/3) * $60,000 = $20,000.

  23. 23. A creditor holds a perfected security interest in a debtor's equipment. The debtor defaults on the loan. The creditor repossesses the equipment and decides to sell it to satisfy the debt. Under UCC Article 9, which of the following is generally required for the creditor's disposition of the collateral?

    Business Law

    • A. The creditor must provide reasonable notice to the debtor and other secured parties.
    • B. The sale must be public, with competitive bidding.
    • C. The creditor must obtain judicial approval before any sale.
    • D. The sale price must equal or exceed the fair market value of the equipment.
    Show answer

    A. The creditor must provide reasonable notice to the debtor and other secured parties.

    UCC Article 9 requires that a secured creditor, upon default and repossession, dispose of collateral in a 'commercially reasonable' manner. A key component of commercial reasonableness is providing reasonable authenticated notice of the disposition to the debtor and any secondary obligors, and usually to other secured parties who have filed financing statements or notified the creditor of their interest.

  24. 24. A buyer, 'Retail Ventures Inc.', contracts to purchase 1,000 units of a new electronic gadget from 'Innovate Electronics Corp.' The contract states, 'Goods to be shipped F.O.B. destination, Retail Ventures' warehouse.' Innovate Electronics properly packages and ships the goods. While en route, and before reaching Retail Ventures' warehouse, the truck carrying the goods is involved in an accident, and all 1,000 units are destroyed. Who bears the risk of loss for the destroyed goods?

    Business Law

    • A. The common carrier, as they were in possession of the goods.
    • B. Both parties equally, as it was an unforeseen accident.
    • C. Innovate Electronics Corp., because the risk of loss had not yet passed.
    • D. Retail Ventures Inc., because they are the buyer.
    Show answer

    C. Innovate Electronics Corp., because the risk of loss had not yet passed.

    F.O.B. destination means the seller bears the risk of loss until the goods are delivered to the buyer's specified destination. Since the goods were destroyed before reaching Retail Ventures' warehouse, Innovate Electronics still bore the risk.

  25. 25. A general contractor, Builder Inc., hires a subcontractor, Electric LLC, to handle all electrical work for a new commercial building project. The contract between Builder Inc. and Electric LLC contains a clause stating, 'Electric LLC is an independent contractor and not an employee of Builder Inc.' During the project, an Electric LLC employee negligently causes significant damage to the building's plumbing system. A third party sues Builder Inc. for the damages. Under the doctrine of *respondeat superior*, is Builder Inc. likely liable for the Electric LLC employee's negligence?

    Business Law

    • A. Yes, because Builder Inc. is the general contractor and responsible for all work on site.
    • B. No, because Electric LLC is an independent contractor, not an employee, negating *respondeat superior*.
    • C. No, unless Builder Inc. was directly negligent in hiring Electric LLC.
    • D. Yes, if Builder Inc. exercised significant control over the daily activities of the Electric LLC employee.
    Show answer

    B. No, because Electric LLC is an independent contractor, not an employee, negating *respondeat superior*.

    The doctrine of *respondeat superior* holds an employer liable for the torts of their employees committed within the scope of employment. However, it generally does not apply to the torts of independent contractors or their employees, as the hiring party typically does not control the manner and means of the independent contractor's work.

CPA Exam — REG (Regulation) flashcards

Tap a card to flip it. 153 flashcards in the full deck.

  • Anticipatory Repudiation

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    A clear and unequivocal indication by one party to a contract, before performance is due, that they will not perform their contractual obligations.

    • Allows the non-breaching party to immediately sue for breach.
    • Must be a clear and definite statement or action.
    • Can be retracted if the non-breaching party has not yet acted upon it.
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  • FOB Shipping Point (UCC)

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    A shipping term under the UCC where the risk of loss passes from the seller to the buyer when the goods are delivered to the carrier.

    • Seller pays to get goods to the carrier.
    • Buyer pays freight from shipping point to destination.
    • Buyer bears risk of loss during transit.
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  • Express Authority

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    Authority explicitly granted to an agent by the principal, either orally or in writing, to perform specific acts.

    • Clearly defined and stated.
    • Limits the agent's power to only the specified actions.
    • Often found in agency agreements or power of attorney documents.
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  • Partner's Apparent Authority

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    The power of a partner to bind the partnership to a third party when the third party reasonably believes the partner has authority to act on behalf of the partnership, based on the partnership's representations or past conduct, even if the partner lacks actual authority.

    • Depends on the reasonable belief of the third party.
    • Created by the partnership's actions or inactions, not the partner's representations alone.
    • Can bind the partnership even if the act is not in the ordinary course of business, if the third party's belief is reasonable.
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  • Implied Warranty of Merchantability

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    An implied warranty under UCC Article 2, applicable to merchants, that goods are fit for the ordinary purposes for which such goods are used, are of fair average quality, and conform to any promises or affirmations of fact made on the container or label.

    • Applies only when the seller is a merchant with respect to goods of that kind.
    • Goods must be fit for their ordinary purpose.
    • Can be disclaimed, but specific requirements apply.
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  • Commercial Impracticability

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    A contract defense where an unforeseen event makes performance extremely difficult, expensive, or burdensome, though not literally impossible, excusing performance.

    • Event must be unforeseeable at the time of contract formation.
    • Performance must be rendered commercially unreasonable, not just less profitable.
    • The party seeking to be excused must not have assumed the risk of the event.
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  • Respondeat Superior

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    A legal doctrine holding an employer (or principal) liable for the wrongful acts of an employee (or agent) committed within the scope of their employment or agency.

    • Means 'let the master answer'.
    • Applies to torts committed by an employee during the course of employment.
    • The employer is vicariously liable, even if not directly negligent.
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  • UCC Article 9 Priority Rule

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    The legal principle under UCC Article 9 that determines the order in which multiple creditors with security interests in the same collateral will be paid upon debtor's default.

    • General rule: 'first to file or perfect' takes priority.
    • Perfection can occur by filing, possession, or control.
    • Special rules apply for purchase money security interests (PMSIs).
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  • After-Acquired Property Clause (UCC)

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    A provision in a security agreement that grants a security interest in collateral the debtor obtains after the agreement is made.

    • Commonly used for inventory and accounts receivable.
    • Security interest attaches when debtor acquires the property.
    • Perfection generally relates back to the original filing date for future advances and after-acquired property.
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  • SEC Form 10-Q

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    A comprehensive quarterly financial report submitted by public companies to the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC).

    • Required under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
    • Provides a continuing view of the company's financial position.
    • Due 40 or 45 days after the end of the first three fiscal quarters (depending on company size).
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  • SEC Form 10-K

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    An annual report required by the SEC for publicly traded companies, providing a comprehensive summary of the company's financial performance and business activities.

    • Filed annually, usually within 60-90 days of fiscal year-end.
    • Contains audited financial statements, management's discussion and analysis (MD&A), and business description.
    • More detailed than the annual report sent to shareholders.
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  • Chapter 7 Distribution Priority

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    The statutory order in which proceeds from the liquidation of a debtor's estate are distributed to various claimants in a Chapter 7 bankruptcy.

    • Secured creditors are paid first from their collateral.
    • Administrative expenses have highest priority among unsecured claims.
    • Priority claims (e.g., certain taxes, wages) are paid before general unsecured claims.
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  • Substantial Performance (Contracts)

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    Occurs when a party performs nearly all of their contractual obligations, but with minor defects. The performing party is entitled to the contract price minus damages for the defects.

    • Applies when the breach is not material.
    • Allows the non-breaching party to recover damages for the minor defect.
    • Prevents forfeiture of payment for significant work completed.
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  • Non-Dischargeable Debts (Chapter 7)

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    Specific types of debts that cannot be eliminated in a Chapter 7 bankruptcy and remain obligations of the debtor.

    • Include certain taxes, student loans (absent undue hardship), domestic support obligations (alimony, child support), and debts incurred by fraud.
    • The purpose is to prevent abuse of the bankruptcy system and protect certain creditors.
    • Debtors remain liable for these debts even after the bankruptcy discharge.
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  • Dischargeable Debts (Chapter 7)

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    Debts that are legally released by a bankruptcy court, freeing the debtor from personal liability.

    • Most unsecured debts (e.g., credit cards, medical bills) are dischargeable.
    • Certain debts (e.g., student loans, most taxes, child support) are generally non-dischargeable.
    • The purpose is to give the debtor a 'fresh start' by eliminating obligations.
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  • UCC Article 9 Disposition of Collateral

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    Rules governing how a secured party must sell or otherwise dispose of collateral after a debtor's default to satisfy the outstanding debt.

    • Must be conducted in a 'commercially reasonable manner'.
    • Debtor must generally receive notice of the disposition.
    • Proceeds are applied to expenses, then the debt, with any surplus to the debtor.
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  • F.O.B. Destination (UCC)

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    A shipping term under the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC) where the seller retains the risk of loss until the goods are delivered to the buyer's specified destination.

    • Seller pays shipping costs.
    • Risk of loss passes to buyer upon tender of delivery at destination.
    • Often used when the seller wants to ensure safe arrival.
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  • UCC Article 9 Priority Rule (General)

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    The general rule for determining which secured party has priority over collateral when there are multiple perfected security interests is 'first to file or perfect'.

    • Applies when there are conflicting perfected security interests.
    • Date of filing a financing statement or perfection, whichever is earlier, governs.
    • Exceptions exist, such as for Purchase Money Security Interests (PMSIs).
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  • Express Authority (Agency)

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    The authority explicitly granted by a principal to an agent, either orally or in writing, to perform specific acts on the principal's behalf.

    • Directly communicated from principal to agent.
    • Can be oral or written.
    • Clearly defines the agent's powers.
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  • Impossibility of Performance (Contracts)

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    A defense to breach of contract where unforeseen circumstances make performance objectively impossible, excusing the performing party.

    • Event must be unforeseen and unpreventable.
    • Performance must be objectively impossible, not just difficult or expensive.
    • Excuses both parties from further performance.
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  • UCC Implied Warranty Disclaimer

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    Rules under the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC) governing how sellers can disclaim or modify implied warranties, such as the warranty of merchantability or fitness for a particular purpose.

    • For merchantability, disclaimer must mention 'merchantability' and be conspicuous (if written).
    • For fitness for a particular purpose, disclaimer must be in writing and conspicuous.
    • Can also be disclaimed by 'as is,' 'with all faults,' or by buyer's examination of goods.
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  • Chapter 11 Bankruptcy

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    A form of bankruptcy that involves a reorganization of a debtor's business affairs, debts, and assets. It allows the business to continue operating while repaying creditors over time under a court-approved plan.

    • Primarily for businesses (corporations, LLCs, partnerships).
    • Debtor typically remains in possession (DIP).
    • Goal is reorganization and continued operation.
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  • Circular 230 Contingent Fees

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    Circular 230 restricts when practitioners can charge contingent fees, generally prohibiting them for preparing original tax returns.

    • Generally prohibited for preparing original or amended tax returns.
    • Permitted for services in connection with an IRS examination.
    • Permitted for claims for refund/credit solely for statutory interest/penalties.
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  • Reasonable Basis & Disclosure

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    A tax position with a 'reasonable basis' (realistic possibility of being sustained) but lacking 'substantial authority' requires disclosure on the tax return to avoid preparer penalties.

    • Reasonable basis generally means a >20% chance of success.
    • Substantial authority generally means >33% but <50% chance of success.
    • If only 'reasonable basis' is met, disclosure on Form 8275 is mandatory for preparers to avoid penalties.
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